Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary goal of discharge planning?

• A. Reducing readmission rates
• B. Improving patient outcomes
• C. Ensuring continuity of care
• D. Ensuring medication adherence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of discharge planning is to ensure continuity of care for patients transitioning from one level of care to another. While reducing readmission rates and improving patient outcomes are important aspects of discharge planning, the main focus is on coordinating care to prevent gaps and ensure a seamless transition for the patient. Ensuring medication adherence is also crucial but falls under the broader goal of continuity of care.

2. When should a critical pathway be revised?

• A. When variances show a new trend.
• B. When the variances show a new trend.
• C. When a member of the team retires.
• D. When the client leaves the hospital.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is a better phrasing of the correct answer, emphasizing the importance of variances showing a new trend. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.

3. In the scenario where a family member slips on the wet floor and hits her head, what hospital process requires completion of an incident report?

• A. Risk management
• B. Outcome management
• C. Quality management
• D. Peer review

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In healthcare settings, completing an incident report is a crucial aspect of risk management. Risk management aims to identify, assess, and mitigate risks to prevent harm to patients, visitors, or staff. Incident reports provide valuable data for analyzing events, implementing corrective actions, and improving patient safety within the healthcare facility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because outcome management focuses on achieving desired results, quality management concentrates on maintaining high standards of care, and peer review involves evaluating the performance of healthcare providers, none of which directly relate to the completion of an incident report due to an accident.

4. Which of the following best describes the ethical concept of values?

• A. Values are an individual�s feelings about situations.
• B. Values are learned through family systems.
• C. Values are organized ways of thinking about the meaning of life.
• D. Values determine the rightness or wrongness of behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Values are how individuals feel about ideas, situations, and concepts.

5. A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

• A. Role ambiguity
• B. Role overload
• C. Role conflict
• D. Sick role

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance caring for their loved one with dementia and managing household responsibilities. This situation represents role conflict, where conflicting demands from different roles (caregiver and homemaker) create stress. Role ambiguity (choice A) refers to uncertainty about what is expected in a role, not conflicting demands. Role overload (choice B) occurs when there are too many responsibilities within a single role, not conflicting roles. The sick role (choice D) is a sociological concept related to the rights and responsibilities of individuals who are ill.

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