which of the following best describes the concept of cultural competence in nursing
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam

1. What is the best description of cultural competence in nursing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cultural competence in nursing means adapting care to meet the cultural needs of patients. This involves understanding and respecting the cultural differences of individuals to provide effective and appropriate healthcare. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring cultural differences goes against the essence of cultural competence. Choice C is not the best description as cultural competence is more than just learning about different cultures; it is about applying that knowledge in providing care. Choice D is not the best description as teaching cultural awareness is only a part of developing cultural competence, but it also requires practical application in care delivery.

2. Selecting a person/unit to negotiate on the group's behalf is known as:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, representation election. Representation election is the process where individuals within a group vote to select a person or unit to represent and negotiate on their behalf. Options A and B are incorrect because they refer to the broader concepts of labor negotiations and bargaining, not specifically the process of selecting a representative. Option C, establishing a union, is also incorrect as it refers to the formation of a labor union rather than the act of choosing a representative for bargaining.

3. What is the primary focus of a patient-centered care model?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary focus of a patient-centered care model is on patient satisfaction. This approach emphasizes providing care that is personalized to meet the unique needs and preferences of each patient, fostering a collaborative and respectful partnership between healthcare providers and patients to achieve better health outcomes. While cost reduction (choice A) can be a byproduct of improved outcomes, it is not the primary focus. Healthcare provider satisfaction (choice B) is important but not the primary focus in patient-centered care. Quality assurance (choice D) is crucial but is secondary to patient satisfaction in a patient-centered care model.

4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

5. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

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