Nursing Elites

1. Verbal interventions with an agitated patient may be calming. These interventions include:

• A. Holding and reassuring the patient
• B. Encouraging other staff to distract the patient
• C. Remaining calm and keeping an arm's distance
• D. Standing close to the patient while talking

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Remaining calm and keeping an arm's distance. Agitated individuals benefit from minimal verbal and physical stimulation. They respond to their environment based on how nurses interact with them. If an individual feels threatened or cornered, the response will generally be self-protective and reactive. Standing close to the patient (choice D) can be perceived as invasive and may escalate the situation. Holding and reassuring the patient (choice A) may not be effective if the patient perceives it as intrusive. Encouraging other staff to distract the patient (choice B) may introduce unnecessary stimulation. Therefore, the recommended approach is to remain calm and keep a safe distance to provide a non-threatening environment for the agitated patient.

2. 12. A patient receives aspart (NovoLog) insulin at 8:00 AM. At which time will it be most important for the nurse to monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia?

• A. 10:00 AM
• B. 12:00 PM
• C. 2:00 PM
• D. 4:00 PM

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After receiving aspart (NovoLog) insulin, which has a rapid onset, it is crucial to monitor the patient for symptoms of hypoglycemia during the peak action time. Typically, the peak action of aspart insulin occurs around 2 hours after administration. Therefore, the nurse should be most vigilant for hypoglycemia symptoms at 10:00 AM. Choice B (12:00 PM) is incorrect as it falls after the expected peak action time. Choices C (2:00 PM) and D (4:00 PM) are also incorrect because the peak action time of aspart insulin typically occurs earlier, around 2 hours post-administration.

3. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
• B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
• C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
• D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

4. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?

• A. Recency error
• B. Leniency error
• C. Halo error
• D. Absolute judgment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.

5. The nurse manager has two employees with a longstanding conflict that is affecting the group's productivity and cohesiveness. She decides to meet with the employees in private, bring the conflict out into the open, and attempt to resolve it through knowledge and reason. Which conflict management strategy did she employ?

• A. Confrontation
• B. Suppression
• C. Collaboration
• D. Intervention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager employed the conflict management strategy of 'Confrontation.' Confrontation involves bringing the conflict out into the open and attempting to resolve it through knowledge and reason, making it the most effective means of resolving conflict in this scenario. Choice B, 'Suppression,' involves ignoring or avoiding the conflict, which is not what the nurse manager did. Choice C, 'Collaboration,' refers to working together to find a mutually acceptable solution and was not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Choice D, 'Intervention,' typically involves a third party stepping in to help resolve the conflict, which was not the case here.

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