Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-year-old patient whose 6:00 AM blood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take?

• A. Avoid snacking at bedtime.
• B. Increase the rapid-acting insulin dose.
• C. Check the blood glucose during the night.
• D. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Somogyi effect, also known as rebound hyperglycemia, occurs due to an excessive insulin dose at night, leading to hypoglycemia in the early morning hours. To address this, the nurse should instruct the patient to check their blood glucose during the night to determine if hypoglycemia is present, which triggers the rebound hyperglycemia. By monitoring blood glucose levels during the night, the patient can identify if adjustments are needed to prevent this phenomenon and maintain stable glucose levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding snacking at bedtime, increasing rapid-acting insulin dose, or administering a larger dose of long-acting insulin are not appropriate actions to manage the Somogyi effect. Checking blood glucose during the night is crucial to identify and prevent the rebound hyperglycemia characteristic of this phenomenon.

2. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
• B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
• C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
• D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

3. A nurse needs to know how to increase her power base. Which of the following are ways nurses can generate power as described by Umiker?

• A. Using body language, standing when talking
• B. Listening for feelings
• C. Using words, avoiding clichés
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'All of the above.' Umiker describes four ways to generate power: using words, through delivery, by listening, and through body language. Choice A is correct as it mentions using body language. Choice B is correct as it mentions listening. Choice C is correct as it pertains to using words effectively and avoiding clichés. Therefore, all the choices are ways nurses can generate power as described by Umiker.

4. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?

• A. Administering immunizations
• B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
• C. Routine health screenings
• D. Health education campaigns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.

5. Achieving Magnet Hospital designation offers hospitals the following advantages: (Select one that does not apply.)

• A. Greater client satisfaction.
• B. Improved nursing recruitment.
• C. Greater client workload.
• D. Nurses who are independent decision makers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Achieving Magnet Hospital designation provides advantages such as greater client satisfaction, improved nursing recruitment, and nurses who are independent decision makers. However, the statement about 'Greater client workload' is not a typical advantage associated with Magnet recognition. Organizations that achieve Magnet recognition focus on improving nursing work environments, empowering nurses, and enhancing patient care quality, rather than increasing client workload. Therefore, C is the correct choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they align with the benefits of achieving Magnet Hospital designation as they lead to increased satisfaction, better recruitment, and more empowered nurses.

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