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ATI Leadership
1. What is the primary role of a nurse mentor?
- A. To supervise nursing staff
- B. To provide emotional support
- C. To guide new nurses in their roles
- D. To enforce policy compliance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary role of a nurse mentor is to guide new nurses in their roles. This involves providing support, sharing knowledge and expertise, offering guidance for professional development, and assisting new nurses in adjusting to their roles and responsibilities. Option A, supervising nursing staff, is more aligned with a nurse manager's responsibilities rather than a mentor's. Option B, providing emotional support, is a part of the mentorship role but not the primary focus. Option D, enforcing policy compliance, is essential but not the primary role of a mentor, as mentoring focuses more on nurturing and developing new nurses.
2. Which of the following scenarios would be an example of shared governance on a nursing unit?
- A. Staff nurses delegate activities to CNAs.
- B. Procedure manuals are written by a committee of nurse managers.
- C. Staff nurses and CNAs make their own schedules.
- D. A unit manager seeks advice from her supervisor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Shared governance in a nursing unit involves staff nurses and CNAs having autonomy and decision-making power in aspects like scheduling, which is reflected in them making their own schedules. This scenario aligns with the philosophy of shared governance where nursing practice is best determined by nurses. Choices A, B, and D do not exemplify shared governance as they involve hierarchical delegation, managerial decision-making, and seeking advice from superiors rather than autonomous decision-making by frontline staff.
3. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering vaccinations
- B. Performing a surgical procedure
- C. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices
- D. Prescribing medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering vaccinations is indeed an example of a primary prevention strategy. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it occurs by targeting the entire population or specific high-risk groups. Vaccinations help prevent the initial development of a disease by enhancing immunity against specific pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of primary prevention strategies. Performing a surgical procedure (Choice B) is a treatment intervention, not a preventive measure. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices (Choice C) falls under health promotion and education, which is more aligned with secondary prevention. Prescribing medication (Choice D) is typically associated with treatment rather than preventing the initial onset of a disease.
4. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
- B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
- C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
- D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
5. As a new nurse on a pediatric unit, you must work nights and you have minimal time to spend with your children. Your colleague observes that you speak abruptly with parents and you become easily annoyed when the patients cry or when they are demanding. You realize you are becoming increasingly more distressed and that you have no time with your children and, as a result you: (Select all that apply.)
- A. Express negative comments to colleagues about patients and parents who annoy you.
- B. Ask the nurse manager to have a schedule with an equal number of day and night shifts so that you can be with your children.
- C. Call off sick as frequently as you can without violating policies so that you have more time with your children.
- D. Minimize your communication with patients and parents so you do not offend them.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Asking the nurse manager for a schedule with an equal number of day and night shifts is a proactive and constructive approach to address the issue of having minimal time with your children. This solution aims to balance work and personal life effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Expressing negative comments about patients and parents (Choice A) is unprofessional and can create a negative work environment. Calling off sick frequently (Choice C) is irresponsible and violates work policies, leading to potential disciplinary actions. Minimizing communication with patients and parents (Choice D) is not a suitable approach as effective communication is essential in healthcare to provide optimal care and support to patients and their families.
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