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1. What is the primary role of a nurse mentor?
- A. To supervise nursing staff
- B. To provide emotional support
- C. To guide new nurses in their roles
- D. To enforce policy compliance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary role of a nurse mentor is to guide new nurses in their roles. This involves providing support, sharing knowledge and expertise, offering guidance for professional development, and assisting new nurses in adjusting to their roles and responsibilities. Option A, supervising nursing staff, is more aligned with a nurse manager's responsibilities rather than a mentor's. Option B, providing emotional support, is a part of the mentorship role but not the primary focus. Option D, enforcing policy compliance, is essential but not the primary role of a mentor, as mentoring focuses more on nurturing and developing new nurses.
2. A unit director at a local hospital knows even leadership may face ethical dilemmas. Which of the following should the director take into consideration when dealing with an employee who is incompetent?
- A. The situation should be tolerated for as long as possible because of the amount of time and paperwork required to terminate an incompetent nurse.
- B. Incompetence only impacts the individual nurse.
- C. The director should follow her institution�s formal process for reporting and handling practices that jeopardize patient safety.
- D. Most nurse practice acts direct how to handle incompetent nurses.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Incompetence jeopardizes patient safety. Therefore, the formal process for handling these practices should be followed.
3. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering childhood vaccinations
- B. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment
- C. Routine screening for hypertension
- D. Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.
4. Organizations are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. This defines which of the following theories?
- A. Contingency theory
- B. Closed system theory
- C. Open system theory
- D. Chaos theory
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Chaos theory. Chaos theory is characterized by organizations that are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. Contingency theory (choice A) is based on the idea that there is no one best way to organize and manage a corporation. Closed system theory (choice B) refers to systems that are closed off from the outside environment and do not interact with it. Open system theory (choice C) views organizations as open systems that interact with their external environment.
5. Which of the following conditions would be well suited to the use of a nursing critical pathway?
- A. Foreign object in the ear
- B. Fever of unknown origin
- C. Hip replacement surgery
- D. Bacterial infection acquired in a foreign country
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A critical pathway is designed to track a patient's progress through a specific timeline, including assessments, interventions, treatments, and outcomes. Hip replacement surgery is well suited for a nursing critical pathway because it has a defined timeline with specific interventions and treatments aimed at achieving optimal functioning. Choices A, B, and D do not typically follow a structured timeline with predetermined interventions and outcomes, making them less suitable for a critical pathway.
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