a nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24 hr urine collection which of the following statement by the client indicates an understanding of the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.

2. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.

3. When a client experiences a major incident, what is the time frame for reporting the incident?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: '24 hours.' It is crucial to report a major incident within 24 hours of its occurrence to ensure timely and accurate documentation. Reporting incidents promptly allows for a swift response and investigation to prevent future occurrences. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended time frame for reporting a major incident, which is 24 hours.

4. If a task is delegated to someone, they need to be granted the ___________ to complete the task.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Authority When a task is delegated, it is essential to grant the individual the authority to complete it. Authority refers to the power or right to give commands, make decisions, and enforce obedience. Planning (choice B), organizing (choice C), and controlling (choice D) are important aspects of management but do not directly address the need for authorization to carry out a delegated task.

5. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

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