Nursing Elites

1. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
• B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
• C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
• D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.

2. Who is the best person to describe the job to an applicant?

• A. Previous employee
• B. Human resource manager
• C. Nursing manager
• D. Chief operating officer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nursing manager is the most suitable person to describe the job to an applicant because they are directly involved in the day-to-day operations and requirements of the position. They have firsthand knowledge of the job responsibilities, expectations, and qualifications needed. Human resource managers are involved in recruitment but may not have the detailed operational knowledge that a nursing manager possesses. A previous employee may provide insights into the work environment but may not have a comprehensive understanding of the current job requirements. The chief operating officer oversees the organization's overall operations and strategy, so they may not have the specific details about the job to effectively describe it to an applicant.

3. What is the primary focus of a patient-centered care model?

• A. Cost reduction
• B. Healthcare provider satisfaction
• C. Patient satisfaction
• D. Quality assurance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary focus of a patient-centered care model is on patient satisfaction. This approach emphasizes providing care that is personalized to meet the unique needs and preferences of each patient, fostering a collaborative and respectful partnership between healthcare providers and patients to achieve better health outcomes. While cost reduction (choice A) can be a byproduct of improved outcomes, it is not the primary focus. Healthcare provider satisfaction (choice B) is important but not the primary focus in patient-centered care. Quality assurance (choice D) is crucial but is secondary to patient satisfaction in a patient-centered care model.

4. Which of the following indicators is viewed as important by the nurse manager in relation to a performance model?

• A. Patient outcomes
• B. Rapport with staff
• C. Daily job performance
• D. Flexibility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient outcomes. In a performance model, one of the key indicators that a nurse manager would focus on is patient outcomes. Patient outcomes are a direct reflection of the quality of care provided by the staff, making it a crucial aspect of evaluating performance. Choice B, rapport with staff, though important for team dynamics, is not directly related to a performance model that primarily assesses job performance. Choice C, daily job performance, is relevant but more of an outcome rather than an indicator itself. Choice D, flexibility, is a valuable trait but not specifically highlighted in the context of a performance model.

5. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has rubella. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Protective environment
• C. Contact
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Protective environment.' Rubella requires placing the client in a protective environment due to its airborne precautions. Airborne precautions are typically used for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA. Droplet precautions are implemented for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza. Therefore, in the case of rubella, airborne precautions in a protective environment are necessary.

Similar Questions