Nursing Elites

1. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
• B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
• C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
• D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.

2. In preparation for a client's procedure with a latex allergy, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure sterilization of nondisposable items with ethylene oxide.
• B. Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves that do not contain powder.
• C. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication.
• D. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in place.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves that do not contain powder. When a client has a latex allergy, it is crucial to avoid direct contact with latex-containing products to prevent an allergic reaction. Choosing hypoallergenic latex gloves that are powder-free reduces the risk of the client being exposed to latex allergens. Option A is incorrect because using ethylene oxide for sterilization does not directly address the client's latex allergy. Option C is incorrect because cleansing latex ports with chlorhexidine does not eliminate the risk of latex exposure. Option D is incorrect as it does not specifically address the issue of latex allergy during the procedure.

3. Which of the following theories best describes current health care delivery systems?

• A. Open system theory
• B. Closed system theory
• C. Chaos theory
• D. Contingency theory

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The contingency theory best describes the current health care delivery systems. Contingency theory emphasizes that there is no one best way to organize or manage, and the effectiveness of an organization is contingent upon internal and external factors. In healthcare, the delivery systems must often adapt and be flexible in response to various factors like patient needs, technological advancements, and regulatory changes. Open system theory focuses on the interaction between a system and its environment, but it does not capture the dynamic and adaptive nature of current healthcare systems. Closed system theory suggests systems are self-contained and do not interact with the environment, which is not accurate for healthcare systems that constantly interact with patients, providers, and external factors. Chaos theory deals with complex systems and unpredictability, which while relevant to some aspects of healthcare, does not provide a comprehensive framework for understanding healthcare delivery systems.

4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of disruptive conflict. In disruptive conflict, the parties involved engage in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. The resident refusing to answer calls and the nurse retaliating with frequent calls to 'get back' at him exemplify behaviors aimed at causing disruption and conflict between them. Perceived conflict refers to each party's perception of the other's position, competitive conflict involves one side winning at the expense of the other, and felt conflict is about the feelings of opposition within the relationship, none of which fully capture the nature of the conflict displayed in this scenario.

5. Which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist (CNS)?

• A. Direct patient care provider
• B. Administrator of healthcare facilities
• C. Consultant for nursing staff
• D. Policy maker in healthcare organizations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) serves as a consultant for nursing staff, providing expert advice and guidance on clinical practice. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as CNS typically focus more on education, research, and consultation rather than direct patient care. Choice B, 'Administrator of healthcare facilities,' is incorrect as this role is usually fulfilled by nurse administrators or nurse managers. Choice D, 'Policy maker in healthcare organizations,' is incorrect as policy-making roles are typically held by individuals in healthcare administration or government positions.

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