ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
- B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
- C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
- D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.
2. What is the main purpose of a clinical audit?
- A. To measure patient satisfaction
- B. To evaluate the effectiveness of clinical practices
- C. To identify areas for improvement
- D. To standardize patient care protocols
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement in clinical practices. While patient satisfaction might be a component evaluated during an audit, the primary goal is to ensure that care is safe, effective, and patient-centered, rather than solely focusing on satisfaction. Evaluating the effectiveness of clinical practices is a related but more specific goal compared to the broader aim of identifying areas for improvement. Standardizing patient care protocols can be a result of a clinical audit, but it is not the main purpose, which is to pinpoint areas needing enhancement.
3. A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?
- A. Wear an N95 respirator when giving direct care to the client.
- B. Place the client in a private room with negative-pressure airflow.
- C. Ensure the client's room has at least six air exchanges per hour.
- D. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside their room if there is construction in the area.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a protective environment for a client with an allogeneic stem cell transplant, the nurse needs to wear an N95 respirator when providing direct care to the client. This precaution is essential to protect the client, whose immune system is compromised after the transplant, from exposure to potential pathogens. Placing the client in a private room with negative-pressure airflow (choice B) is more appropriate for clients with airborne infections. Ensuring the client's room has sufficient air exchanges (choice C) is important for maintaining air quality but is not the primary precaution for protecting an immunocompromised client. Making the client wear a mask when outside the room due to construction (choice D) focuses on external factors and does not directly address the risk of infection during direct care.
4. What is the process of helping an employee to improve performance called?
- A. Coaching
- B. Disciplining
- C. Mentoring
- D. Peer reviewing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coaching. Coaching involves providing guidance and support to help an employee enhance their performance by focusing on skill development, addressing weaknesses, and achieving professional growth. Mentoring (choice C) is about guiding and nurturing a less experienced individual, not specifically aimed at improving performance. Peer reviewing (choice D) involves colleagues evaluating each other's performance, not necessarily focused on improvement. Disciplining (choice B) is taking corrective actions in response to policy violations or performance issues, which is different from the process of helping an employee improve their performance.
5. Selye's stress theory explains that a person stressed for long periods of time will:
- A. Face exhaustion and be more susceptible to illnesses.
- B. Become fatigued and become stronger.
- C. Become more assertive.
- D. Safety needs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Selye's stress theory posits that individuals experiencing prolonged stress are likely to face exhaustion and become more susceptible to illnesses. This is because the body's response to chronic stress can lead to physical and psychological depletion, increasing the risk of health problems. Choice B is incorrect as becoming stronger is not a typical outcome of prolonged stress according to Selye's theory. Choice C, becoming more assertive, is not directly related to the physical implications of chronic stress. Choice D, safety needs, is unrelated to Selye's stress theory and does not reflect the expected outcomes of prolonged stress.
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