ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client experiencing severe anxiety?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about their feelings.
- B. Provide a quiet and calm environment.
- C. Encourage the client to exercise vigorously.
- D. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of severe anxiety, creating a quiet and calm environment is crucial as it can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation. This environment can provide a sense of safety and security, which are essential for individuals experiencing heightened anxiety levels. Encouraging the client to talk about their feelings may not be suitable during severe anxiety as it can further escalate distress by focusing on the source of anxiety. Vigorous exercise and group activities may not be appropriate initially, as they can increase arousal levels rather than promoting a sense of calm needed to manage severe anxiety.
2. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?
- A. Projection
- B. Rationalization
- C. Regression
- D. Sublimation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is using rationalization, a common defense mechanism. Rationalization involves creating logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. In this scenario, the client is justifying excessive drinking by linking it to hard work and the need for relaxation, masking the true underlying issue of alcohol abuse. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development, and sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities, none of which are demonstrated in the client's statement.
3. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Short-term memory loss
- B. Headache
- C. Confusion
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can have side effects such as short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, particularly antipsychotics.
4. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?
- A. Meditation
- B. Problem-solving training
- C. Relaxation
- D. Journaling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the student is dealing with conflicting priorities of attending college or working to support the family financially. Problem-solving training is the most appropriate coping strategy to recommend. It can help the student objectively assess the situation, identify potential solutions, and make informed decisions. Problem-solving training provides structure and guidance, empowering the student to navigate the conflicting priorities effectively and choose the best course of action. Meditation, relaxation, and journaling may be beneficial for stress relief but may not directly address the decision-making process required in this situation.
5. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?
- A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
- B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
- C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
- D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.
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