Nursing Elites

1. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

2. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Alogia
• D. Paranoia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alogia, also known as poverty of speech, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. It refers to a reduction in the amount of speech or the feeling that one has nothing to say. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms, characterized by the presence of abnormal experiences and beliefs. Paranoia is a symptom involving intense anxious or fearful feelings, which is not classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
• D. Discourage verbalization of feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode include encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discussing feelings is an essential part of therapy for clients with bipolar disorder, thus discouraging verbalization of feelings is not therapeutic and should not be implemented. Choice D is incorrect because it goes against the principles of therapeutic communication and emotional expression, which are crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is being discharged. Which of the following instructions should the nurse not include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Practice relaxation techniques daily
• B. Avoid caffeine and alcohol
• C. Engage in regular physical activity
• D. Use benzodiazepines as the first-line treatment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discharge instructions for a client with GAD should include practicing relaxation techniques daily, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, engaging in regular physical activity, and seeking support from friends and family. Benzodiazepines are not recommended as the first-line treatment due to their potential for dependence and should not be included in the discharge teaching.

5. How does emotional trauma typically affect individuals physically?

• A. Emotional trauma is a distinct category and unrelated to physical symptoms.
• B. Physical manifestations of emotional trauma are usually temporary.
• C. Emotional trauma is often manifested as physical symptoms.
• D. Patients are more aware of physical problems caused by trauma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Emotional trauma can often manifest as physical symptoms, such as headaches, stomachaches, and other somatic complaints. These physical manifestations can be long-lasting and impact the individual's overall well-being.

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