ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete to increase red blood cell production?
- A. Erythropoietin
- B. Insulin and glycogen
- C. Testosterone
- D. Thyroid stimulating hormone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythropoietin. The kidneys produce erythropoietin to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Insulin and glycogen are not hormones secreted by the kidneys; insulin is produced by the pancreas, and glycogen is a stored form of glucose. Testosterone is a hormone primarily produced by the testes in males and to a lesser extent in females. Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by the pituitary gland to regulate thyroid function, not red blood cell production.
2. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?
- A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
- B. To increase cardiac output.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To prevent the development of angina.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.
3. Which of the following describes the etiology of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
- A. A blow to the head from a hard object
- B. Lack of blood flow to part of the brain
- C. Excessive exercise, such as running
- D. A ruptured artery in the heart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke, is often caused by a lack of blood flow to part of the brain. This leads to damage in the brain tissue due to the deprived oxygen and nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A blow to the head from a hard object can cause a traumatic brain injury but is not the etiology of a CVA. Excessive exercise like running does not typically lead to a stroke. A ruptured artery in the heart may result in a heart attack, not a cerebrovascular accident.
4. A 21-year-old male is brought to the ED following a night of partying in his fraternity. His friends found him 'asleep' and couldn't get him to respond. They cannot recall how many alcoholic beverages he drank the night before. While educating a student nurse and the man's friends, the nurse begins by explaining that alcohol is:
- A. A water-soluble compound that is easily absorbed by the gastric lining of the stomach.
- B. Very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier.
- C. Able to reverse the transport of some substances to remove them from the brain.
- D. Very likely to cause sedation and therefore the client just needs to sleep it off.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol is very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier, leading to its effects on the central nervous system and causing symptoms like sedation and unconsciousness. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is not water-soluble; it is lipid-soluble. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol does not reverse the transport of substances from the brain. Choice D is incorrect as sedation from alcohol is not a reason to just 'sleep it off' in cases of alcohol poisoning, which can be life-threatening and requires medical attention.
5. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?
- A. Gastroesophageal reflux
- B. Crohn's disease
- C. Irritable bowel syndrome
- D. Colon cancer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.
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