Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?

• A. Abdominal CT scan
• B. Abdominal x-ray
• C. Colonoscopy
• D. Fecal occult blood test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fecal occult blood test should be performed annually for individuals over age 50 to screen for colon cancer.

2. Your goal is to minimize David’s risk of complications after a heriorrhaphy. You instruct the patient to:

• A. Avoid the use of pain medication.
• B. Cough and deep breathe Q2H.
• C. Splint the incision if he can’t avoid sneezing or coughing.
• D. Apply heat to scrotal swelling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instruct the patient to splint the incision if he can't avoid sneezing or coughing to minimize the risk of complications after heriorrhaphy.

3. Of the following signs and symptoms of bowel obstruction, which is related primarily to small bowel obstruction rather than large bowel obstruction?

• A. Profuse vomiting.
• B. Cramping abdominal pain.
• C. Abdominal distention.
• D. High-pitched bowel sounds above the obstruction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Profuse vomiting is the classic sign of small bowel obstruction and rarely occurs with large bowel obstruction. Abdominal discomfort and distention are present in both small and large bowel obstructions, but distention is more common in large bowel obstruction. High-pitched bowel sounds indicate hyperperistalsis, which occurs early in obstruction.

4. The student nurse is participating in colorectal cancer-screening program. Which patient has the fewest risk factors for colon cancer?

• A. Janice, a 45 y.o. with a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis
• B. George, a 50 y.o. whose father died of colon cancer
• C. Herman, a 60 y.o. who follows a low-fat, high-fiber diet
• D. Sissy, a 72 y.o. with a history of breast cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Herman, a 60 y.o. who follows a low-fat, high-fiber diet, has the fewest risk factors for colon cancer.

5. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?

• A. Assessing for pain
• B. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
• C. Providing discharge teaching
• D. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis. This intervention is crucial in managing a client with appendicitis because it indicates a possible rupture of the inflamed appendix. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal rigidity. Prompt recognition of these symptoms is essential for timely intervention and surgical management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while assessing for pain is important, assessing for symptoms of peritonitis takes precedence due to the critical nature of appendicitis. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids and providing discharge teaching are not immediate priorities in the management of a client with acute appendicitis.

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