Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice?

• A. Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease
• B. Rehabilitation and restorative services
• C. Adaptation of hospital care to the home environment
• D. Hospice care delivery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

2. The nurse notes that the fall might also cause a possible head injury. The patient will be observed for signs of increased intracranial pressure which include:

• A. Narrowing of the pulse pressure
• B. Vomiting
• C. Periorbital edema
• D. A positive Kernig's sign

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Periorbital edema is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. It is caused by fluid accumulation around the eyes due to compromised drainage. Narrowing of the pulse pressure is more indicative of shock than increased intracranial pressure. While vomiting can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, it is not as specific as periorbital edema. A positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis, not increased intracranial pressure.

3. Integrated management for childhood illness is the universal protocol of care endorsed by WHO and is used by different countries worldwide, including the Philippines. In any case that the nurse classifies the child and categorizes the signs and symptoms in the PINK category, you know that this means:

• A. Urgent referral
• B. Antibiotic Management
• C. Home treatment
• D. Outpatient treatment facility is needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a child is classified under the PINK category in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines, it signifies the need for antibiotic management. This category indicates severe signs and symptoms requiring immediate antibiotic treatment to address the underlying infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the PINK category specifically calls for urgent antibiotic management rather than urgent referral, home treatment, or outpatient treatment facility.

4. AIDS enteropathy is most commonly manifested as _____.

• A. abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
• B. diarrhea and weight loss
• C. abdominal bloating and flatulence
• D. rectal fissures and constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: AIDS enteropathy typically presents as diarrhea and weight loss due to the impact of HIV on the gastrointestinal tract. While abdominal pain and rectal bleeding (Choice A), abdominal bloating and flatulence (Choice C), and rectal fissures and constipation (Choice D) can occur in some cases, the most common manifestations are diarrhea and weight loss.

5. What is the primary food safety concern for a patient undergoing chemotherapy?

• A. Possible food allergy reactions
• B. Possible food-drug interactions
• C. Possible pesticide residue
• D. Potential risk of foodborne illness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potential risk of foodborne illness. Patients undergoing chemotherapy have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to foodborne illnesses. Chemotherapy can reduce the count of white blood cells, which impairs the body's ability to fight off infections from bacteria or other pathogens that might be present in food. Therefore, the prevention of foodborne illnesses is a critical concern for these patients. Choices A, B, and C, while they represent valid concerns for food safety in general, are not the primary concern for patients undergoing chemotherapy. These patients are at a heightened risk of experiencing severe complications from foodborne illnesses, making it a more significant concern than potential food allergies, food-drug interactions, or pesticide residues.

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