Nursing Elites

1. Which mineral is a principal component of cell membranes?

• A. phosphorus
• B. magnesium
• C. iron
• D. iodine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phosphorus is the correct answer. It is a key component of cell membranes, being part of the phospholipid bilayer that provides structure and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells. Magnesium, iron, and iodine do not serve as principal components of cell membranes. Magnesium is involved in various enzymatic reactions, iron is essential for oxygen transport, and iodine plays a role in thyroid hormone synthesis.

2. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:

• A. Soften and efface the cervix
• B. Numb cervical pain receptors
• C. Prevent cervical lacerations
• D. Stimulate uterine contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

3. A nurse is providing teaching about formula feeding to the parents of an infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Formula that remains in the bottle should not be used for one more feeding.
• B. Formula should be changed to whole milk when the infant is 12 months old.
• C. If the infant is gaining weight too rapidly, do not dilute the formula.
• D. If the infant turns away after taking most of the feeding, stop the feeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If the infant turns away after taking most of the feeding, it indicates they are full, and continuing to feed may lead to overfeeding. Choice A is incorrect because it is not safe to use formula that remains in the bottle for another feeding due to the risk of bacterial contamination. Choice B is incorrect as whole milk should be introduced after the infant is 12 months old, not 9 months old. Choice C is incorrect as diluting formula can compromise the infant's nutrition and should not be done without healthcare provider guidance.

4. Each nonnutritive sweetener can be recommended to patients with phenylketonuria, except one. Which one is the exception?

• A. Cyclamate
• B. Acesulfame-K
• C. Saccharin
• D. Aspartame

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Aspartame. Aspartame contains phenylalanine, which is contraindicated for individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU), a genetic disorder that impairs phenylalanine metabolism. Therefore, patients with PKU should avoid aspartame. Choices A, B, and C (Cyclamate, Acesulfame-K, Saccharin) are considered safe for individuals with PKU as they do not contain phenylalanine and can be recommended as alternatives to sugar for these patients.

5. Each is a physiologic role of vitamin D, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Hematopoiesis
• B. Cardiac and neuromuscular function
• C. Immune responses
• D. Serum calcium regulation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hematopoiesis. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in regulating serum calcium levels, which is essential for maintaining cardiac and neuromuscular function. Additionally, vitamin D is involved in modulating immune responses. However, hematopoiesis, the formation of red blood cells, is not a direct physiologic role of vitamin D. Therefore, hematopoiesis is the exception among the listed functions of vitamin D.

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