which nutrient deficiency produces microcytic anemia fatigue faulty digestion blue sclerae pale conjunctivae and tachycardia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam

1. Which nutrient deficiency produces microcytic anemia, fatigue, faulty digestion, blue sclerae, pale conjunctivae, and tachycardia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A deficiency in iron can lead to various symptoms, such as microcytic anemia, fatigue, faulty digestion, blue sclerae, pale conjunctivae, and tachycardia. Iron-deficiency anemia may be caused by inadequate dietary intake; accelerated demand or losses; and inadequate absorption secondary to diarrhea, decreased acid secretions, or antacid therapy. Iron deficiency is frequently the result of postnatal feeding practices and has a serious impact on growth and mental and psychomotor development in infants and children. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as zinc deficiency typically presents with symptoms like impaired wound healing, taste abnormalities, and hair loss; sodium deficiency can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, dizziness, and confusion; and potassium deficiency may cause muscle weakness, fatigue, and abnormal heart rhythms.

2. A nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy. The nurse verifies the postoperative prescription which reads, 'Discontinue NPO status; advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following are appropriate for the nurse to offer the client? (SATA)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Applesauce and chicken broth. After an appendectomy, patients are typically started on a clear liquid diet before advancing to more solid foods. Applesauce and chicken broth are part of a low-residue diet that is easily digestible and gentle on the digestive system, making them suitable choices for a client following surgery. Wheat toast may be too heavy and fibrous initially, while other solid foods should be introduced gradually to prevent gastrointestinal upset.

3. Considering the statement that communication is most effective when barriers are first removed, which of the following is recognized as an inhibiting factor in communication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Advanced age of the client.' Age can be a significant obstacle in communication due to factors such as hearing loss, cognitive decline, or memory issues, which all can hamper effective communication. Choices A, B, and C, while they may present challenges in communication, are not directly related to age and its influence on communication, making them incorrect. The issues presented by not using universally accepted abbreviations, incorrect grammar, and poor handwriting can be resolved through clarification, education, or the use of alternative communication methods, unlike the difficulties that can arise from advanced age.

4. A client with Crohn's disease is receiving parenteral nutrition. Which of the following interventions should the nurse not include in the care of this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In caring for a client receiving parenteral nutrition, it is important to follow proper guidelines to ensure safety and effectiveness. Unused parenteral nutrition should be removed after 24 hours, not 12 hours, to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is correct as it ensures the solution is at room temperature before infusion. Option C is essential for monitoring the client's response to parenteral nutrition. Option D is important to maintain the correct flow rate and adjust it as needed. Therefore, option B is the incorrect choice among the options provided.

5. What is the main function of dietary fiber in managing cholesterol levels?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dietary fiber helps lower cholesterol levels by binding to bile acids and reducing cholesterol absorption.

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