Nursing Elites

1. Which list contains fatty acids that reduce cardiovascular disease risk?

• A. omega 3, trans fatty acids, saturated fatty acids
• B. EPA and DHA
• C. omega 6, omega 3, partially hydrogenated oil
• D. omega 3, EPA, saturated fatty acids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) and DHA (docosahexaenoic acid), both omega-3 fatty acids, are known to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

2. During the phallic stage, with which parent must the child identify?

• A. The same-sex parent
• B. The opposite-sex parent
• C. The mother or the primary caregiver
• D. Both parents

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to Freud's psychosexual development theory, during the phallic stage (approximately ages 3 to 6), the child starts to identify with the parent of the same sex. This identification is a crucial part of the child's development and is believed to influence their adult behavior. The process involves the child adopting the characteristics, attitudes, and values of the same-sex parent. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with Freud's theory of the phallic stage of psychosexual development.

3. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should plan to administer total parenteral nutrition for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is postoperative following a laminectomy and is receiving IV PCA
• B. A client who has dysphagia and does not recognize his family
• C. A client who has COPD and is going home with oxygen
• D. A client who has colon cancer and will undergo a hemicolectomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is essential for clients undergoing significant surgical procedures like a hemicolectomy to ensure they receive adequate nutrition when oral intake is not possible. Choices A, B, and C do not typically require TPN. Choice A is managing postoperative pain with IV PCA, choice B is likely to need alternative feeding methods due to dysphagia, and choice C is going home with oxygen for COPD management, which does not directly relate to the need for TPN.

4. What is a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Night blindness
• C. Bone pain
• D. Rashes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Vitamin D deficiency often leads to bone pain and weakness as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by aiding in the absorption of calcium. Hair loss (choice A) is not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (choice B) is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Rashes (choice D) are not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease is being taught by a nurse about managing the illness. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Limit fluid intake not related to meals.
• B. Chew on mint leaves to relieve indigestion.
• C. Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime.
• D. Season foods with black pepper.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for managing gastroesophageal reflux disease is to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. This helps prevent acid reflux by allowing food to digest before lying down. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Limiting fluid intake not related to meals is not a standard recommendation for managing GERD. Chewing on mint leaves may worsen symptoms as mint can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach acid to flow back up. Seasoning foods with black pepper does not specifically help manage GERD.

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