which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position during enteral feedings. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting the downward flow of the feeding and reducing the risk of regurgitation into the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings is not directly related to preventing aspiration. Choice C is incorrect because the rate of administration does not directly impact the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because warming the formula does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected answer is A. Weighing daily is crucial for clients with heart failure to monitor fluid status since sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as some physical activity is encouraged for heart failure clients, tailored to their condition. Choice D is incorrect as adjusting medication doses should always be done under healthcare provider guidance rather than self-administration.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient who is experiencing acute pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Administering prescribed analgesics is the most effective way to manage acute pain. Analgesics help in reducing or eliminating pain quickly and efficiently. Repositioning the patient may be helpful in certain cases to relieve discomfort, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management, but in cases of acute pain, administering analgesics is the priority. Administering IV fluids may be necessary for certain conditions but is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain.

5. A client at risk for osteoporosis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should increase my intake of vitamin D.' Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for calcium absorption, which is essential for bone health and preventing osteoporosis. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (choice A) would be detrimental as weight-bearing activities help improve bone density. Reducing dairy intake (choice C) is not recommended as dairy products are a good source of calcium. While increasing calcium intake (choice D) is important, ensuring sufficient vitamin D levels for proper absorption is equally crucial for bone health.

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