Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the transfusion immediately.
• B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Increase the transfusion rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever, the priority action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion immediately. A fever during a blood transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Administering an antihistamine (choice B) or a diuretic (choice C) without assessing and addressing the potential transfusion reaction can be harmful. Increasing the transfusion rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate any adverse reactions the client is experiencing.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Bounding peripheral pulses
• C. Weight loss
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with chronic heart failure, bounding peripheral pulses are a classic sign of fluid overload. This occurs due to increased volume in the arterial system, causing a forceful pulse. Increased urine output (Choice A) is often seen in clients with fluid volume deficit, not overload. Weight loss (Choice C) is also inconsistent with fluid overload as it suggests a fluid deficit. Decreased heart rate (Choice D) is more commonly associated with conditions like bradycardia, hypothyroidism, or the use of certain medications, but not specifically indicative of fluid overload in chronic heart failure.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! Dry mucous membranes are a common finding in clients with dehydration. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid volume in the body, resulting in dryness of mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with dehydration, as the body tries to compensate for decreased fluid volume by increasing heart rate. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a possible finding in dehydration due to reduced circulating volume. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is more commonly seen in conditions like respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis, rather than dehydration.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
• B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
• C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
• D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

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