Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

2. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
• B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
• C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
• D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.

3. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Administer corticosteroids
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways for improved breathing. Oxygen (Choice B) can be administered after epinephrine to support oxygenation. Corticosteroids (Choice C) may be used to prevent a biphasic reaction but are not the initial intervention. Antihistamines (Choice D) can help with itching and hives but do not address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Gastric residual of 200 mL
• B. Heart rate of 100/min
• C. Urinary output of 250 mL in 12 hr
• D. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL is higher than expected and should be reported to prevent hyperglycemia complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hyperglycemia, causing various issues such as increased risk of infection and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings and do not require immediate reporting.

5. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

• A. Supine position
• B. Semi-Fowler's position
• C. Trendelenburg position
• D. Prone position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

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