which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

A. Monitor aPTT
B. Monitor INR
C. Monitor platelet count
D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

A. Increased appetite
B. Productive cough with green sputum
C. Cyanosis of the lips and nail beds
D. Mild shortness of breath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cyanosis of the lips and nail beds. Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, requiring immediate intervention in clients with pneumonia. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, productive cough with green sputum, and mild shortness of breath are common findings in clients with pneumonia and may not require immediate intervention unless they worsen or are accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing treatment for religious reasons?

A. Respect the patient's beliefs
B. Attempt to persuade the patient
C. Provide education on treatment benefits
D. Document the refusal and notify the provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Respecting the patient's beliefs is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Attempting to persuade the patient may violate their autonomy and decision-making capacity, leading to a breakdown in trust. Providing education on treatment benefits may be appropriate in other situations but is not the best approach when a patient refuses treatment based on religious reasons. Documenting the refusal and notifying the provider are important steps to ensure proper continuity of care, but the primary response should be to respect the patient's beliefs to maintain a trusting relationship and uphold ethical standards.

4. A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?

A. Keep the catheter clamped when not in use
B. Have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed
C. Use a non-coring needle to access the catheter
D. Flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride every 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.