Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. aPTT of 38 seconds
• B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.0

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?

• A. Monitor the dressing site daily
• B. Check for redness and swelling
• C. Monitor for fever
• D. Flush the central line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 62/min
• B. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within normal limits and are not indicative of a potentially life-threatening complication associated with morphine therapy.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one puff every 5 minutes until symptoms improve.
• B. Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Shake the inhaler for 2 seconds before use.
• D. Exhale forcefully after each puff.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to hold their breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication allows it to reach deeper into the lungs for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because taking one puff every 5 minutes may lead to overuse of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler for only 2 seconds may not provide adequate mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because exhaling forcefully after each puff may reduce the amount of medication that reaches the lungs.

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