ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypertension
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients with hypothyroidism due to slowed metabolic processes. The other choices, such as bradycardia (slow heart rate), weight gain, and hypertension (high blood pressure) are not typically associated with hypothyroidism. Bradycardia can occur due to the decreased metabolic rate, but it is not a consistent finding. Weight gain is common but not universal, and hypertension is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?
- A. Diabetes mellitus
- B. Shoulder presentation
- C. Postterm with oligohydramnios
- D. Chorioamnionitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shoulder presentation is a contraindication for oxytocin because it can increase the risk of complications during labor, such as shoulder dystocia. Diabetes mellitus (Choice A) is not a contraindication for the use of oxytocin. Postterm with oligohydramnios (Choice C) and chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may actually necessitate the use of oxytocin to induce or augment labor for the well-being of the mother and baby.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to the same location each time.
- B. Rotate the patch site daily to avoid skin irritation.
- C. Apply the patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime.
- D. Keep the patch on at all times, even during a bath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the nitroglycerin transdermal patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime. This schedule helps prevent tolerance to the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be rotated to different sites to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect as daily rotation is recommended, not daily application to the same site. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should be removed during a bath as it may decrease the efficacy of the medication.
4. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
- C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.
5. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.
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