Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements best describes the benefit of using an occupation-centered practice model?

• A. Addresses the unique value of occupation
• B. Provides intervention protocols
• C. Provides specific intervention activities
• D. Addresses children's limitations in skills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An occupation-centered practice model focuses on the unique value of engaging in meaningful and purposeful activities, known as occupations. By addressing the significance of occupation in an individual's life, this model emphasizes the importance of activities that hold personal meaning and relevance. Understanding and incorporating the value of occupation can lead to more client-centered and holistic interventions that promote health and well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the model emphasizes the value of occupations, not just intervention protocols. Choice C is incorrect as the model is centered around the value of occupations, not just specific intervention activities. Choice D is incorrect as the model is not primarily focused on addressing children's limitations in skills, but rather on the significance of engaging in meaningful activities.

2. As a result of opioid administration, a child's respirations are slow and shallow. Which should the nurse anticipate when assessing the child's arterial blood gas?

• A. Increased PCO2 and respiratory acidosis
• B. Decreased PCO2 and respiratory alkalosis
• C. Low pH and low PCO2
• D. High pH and high PCO2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child's respirations are slow and shallow due to opioid administration, it results in hypoventilation. This leads to retaining carbon dioxide, indicated by an increased PCO2 level on arterial blood gas analysis, and subsequently causes respiratory acidosis due to the buildup of CO2 in the blood. Therefore, choice A, 'Increased PCO2 and respiratory acidosis,' is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because slow and shallow respirations would not lead to decreased PCO2 or respiratory alkalosis (choice B), low pH and low PCO2 (choice C), or high pH and high PCO2 (choice D).

3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Respiratory distress
• C. Seizures
• D. Cardiac arrhythmias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmias are the most critical and life-threatening manifestation that requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment is essential to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent life-threatening complications. Hyperthermia, respiratory distress, and seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and should be addressed, but cardiac arrhythmias pose the most urgent risk to the patient's life.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
• C. Heart rate 130/min
• D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The provider should report the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid to the healthcare provider as it may indicate shunt malfunction or infection, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. Decreased urine output, a temperature of 37.5 degrees C, and a heart rate of 130/min are common postoperative findings and may not be directly related to shunt function. While these findings should still be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.

5. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

• A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
• B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
• C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
• D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

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