Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements best describes the benefit of using an occupation-centered practice model?

• A. Addresses the unique value of occupation
• B. Provides intervention protocols
• C. Provides specific intervention activities
• D. Addresses children's limitations in skills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An occupation-centered practice model focuses on the unique value of engaging in meaningful and purposeful activities, known as occupations. By addressing the significance of occupation in an individual's life, this model emphasizes the importance of activities that hold personal meaning and relevance. Understanding and incorporating the value of occupation can lead to more client-centered and holistic interventions that promote health and well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the model emphasizes the value of occupations, not just intervention protocols. Choice C is incorrect as the model is centered around the value of occupations, not just specific intervention activities. Choice D is incorrect as the model is not primarily focused on addressing children's limitations in skills, but rather on the significance of engaging in meaningful activities.

2. Which menu choices for a child diagnosed with renal failure and experiencing hyperkalemia indicate the need for further instruction by the nurse?

• A. Carrots and green, leafy vegetables
• B. Spaghetti and meat sauce with breadsticks
• C. Hamburger on a bun and cherry gelatin
• D. Chips, cold cuts, and canned foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carrots and green, leafy vegetables are high in potassium, which should be avoided in hyperkalemia. Therefore, this choice requires further instruction by the nurse to prevent exacerbating the child's condition.

3. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

4. What is the probable cause recognized by the nurse when a 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Recovery from German measles 2 months ago
• B. Dysuria since the previous night
• C. A history of allergy
• D. A sore throat 2 weeks ago

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as a sore throat, which triggers an allergic-type response that affects the glomeruli's function. This immune response leads to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, resulting in acute glomerulonephritis.

5. A toddler is admitted to the surgical unit for a planned closure of a temporary colostomy. Which medical prescription should the nurse question?

• A. Clear liquids today, NPO tomorrow
• B. Type and cross-match for 1 unit of packed red blood cells
• C. Rectal temperatures every 4 hours
• D. Start an intravenous line with D5NS at 20 mL per hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Rectal temperatures should be avoided in a toddler with a colostomy due to the risk of injury. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate medical prescriptions for a toddler undergoing colostomy closure. Choice A ensures the toddler's intake of clear liquids before being made NPO, choice B prepares for possible blood transfusion needs, and choice D initiates intravenous hydration with D5NS at an appropriate rate.

Similar Questions