Nursing Elites

1. Which nutrient has the highest satiety value?

• A. Complex carbohydrates
• B. High-quality protein
• C. Low-quality protein
• D. Fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fat has the highest satiety value among the listed nutrients. It slows down digestion, stays in the stomach longer, and provides a sustained release of energy, leading to increased feelings of fullness and satisfaction. Complex carbohydrates can also contribute to satiety, but fat generally has a stronger effect. High-quality protein is important for satiety as well, but it is generally not as filling as fat. Low-quality protein does not have as significant satiating effects as high-quality protein or fat.

2. Which of the four phases of emergency management is defined as 'sustained action that reduces or eliminates long-term risk to people and property from natural hazards and their effects'?

• A. Recovery
• B. Mitigation
• C. Response
• D. Preparedness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Mitigation.' Mitigation is the phase of emergency management that focuses on sustained actions aimed at reducing or eliminating long-term risks to people and property from natural hazards. Recovery (A) involves restoring and rebuilding infrastructure, housing, and services after a disaster. Response (C) deals with immediate actions taken to save lives and prevent further damage during a disaster. Preparedness (D) involves planning, training, and equipping organizations and communities to effectively respond to emergencies.

3. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

4. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

5. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

• A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
• B. To check for any obvious malignancy
• C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
• D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

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