Nursing Elites

1. Which type of fatty acid has carbon atoms connected by two or more double bonds?

• A. Saturated fatty acids
• B. Monounsaturated fatty acids
• C. Trans fatty acids
• D. Polyunsaturated fatty acids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Polyunsaturated fatty acids. Polyunsaturated fatty acids have two or more double bonds in their carbon chains, making them less stable and more prone to oxidation. This characteristic distinguishes them from saturated fatty acids (Choice A), which have single bonds between carbon atoms providing stability. Monounsaturated fatty acids (Choice B) contain only one double bond, and trans fatty acids (Choice C) can have varying numbers of double bonds but are not specifically defined by having two or more double bonds.

2. Which mental health disorder can lead to the erosion of lingual enamel, enlarged parotid glands, palatal bruising, and dentinal hypersensitivity?

• A. Bulimia
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Depression
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bulimia. Bulimia involves repeated episodes of binge eating followed by purging, which can lead to the erosion of lingual enamel, enlarged parotid glands, palatal bruising, and dentinal hypersensitivity. This behavior exposes the teeth to stomach acid during purging, causing damage to the enamel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because these conditions are not typically associated with the specific oral health issues mentioned in the question.

3. The nurse knows that after receiving the blood from the blood bank, it should be administered within:

• A. 1 hour
• B. 2 hours
• C. 4 hours
• D. 6 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blood transfusions need to be administered promptly after receiving the blood from the blood bank to ensure patient safety and effectiveness. Waiting too long can lead to complications such as bacterial growth in the blood product, which can be harmful when infused. Administering the blood within 6 hours is crucial to prevent such risks. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because waiting for 1, 2, or 4 hours respectively can increase the likelihood of complications associated with delayed transfusion.

4. What is the desirable resting systolic blood pressure for adults?

• A. <130 mmHg>
• B. <105 mmHg>
• C. <120 mmHg>
• D. <140 mmHg>

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The desirable resting systolic blood pressure for adults is less than 120 mmHg. This blood pressure is associated with a lower risk of cardiovascular disease. Measurements higher than 120 mmHg (choices A and D) indicate elevated blood pressure, which can lead to hypertension and other health complications if not managed. A reading of less than 105 mmHg (choice B) could indicate low blood pressure, which also poses health risks such as dizziness and fainting.

5. In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of:

• A. ECG
• B. General Anesthesia
• C. EEG
• D. MRI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: General Anesthesia. In preparation for ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy), the nurse should be aware that it is almost similar to the process of administering general anesthesia. This similarity is crucial as it involves sedation and muscle relaxation to ensure safety during the procedure. Choice A (ECG) is incorrect because ECT and ECG (Electrocardiogram) serve different purposes and involve distinct procedures. Choice C (EEG) is incorrect as EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures brain activity and is not directly related to ECT. Choice D (MRI) is also incorrect as MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that does not involve sedation or muscle relaxation like ECT and general anesthesia.

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