Nursing Elites

1. Which action represents a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Screening for hypertension
• B. Providing immunizations
• C. Offering rehabilitation services
• D. Administering antibiotics for infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is a secondary prevention strategy as it involves early detection and management of a health condition before it progresses. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat diseases in their early stages to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

2. Which best describes the role of surveillance in public health?

• A. Monitoring the spread of diseases
• B. Providing direct patient care
• C. Offering health education workshops
• D. Conducting epidemiological research

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Surveillance in public health primarily involves monitoring the spread of diseases. By tracking patterns of diseases and behaviors in populations, public health officials can identify potential outbreaks, assess the effectiveness of interventions, and make informed decisions to protect and improve community health. Surveillance is crucial for early detection, timely response, and prevention of the spread of infectious diseases and other health threats.

3. What are the major risk factors common to the above mentioned 4 major NCDs?

• A. Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking
• B. Hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, and poor stress management
• C. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and smoking
• D. Unhealthy diet, alcoholism, and sedentary lifestyle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major risk factors common to cardiovascular diseases, cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and diabetes mellitus are unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking. These risk factors contribute significantly to the development and progression of these non-communicable diseases.

4. What factor is most likely to influence the success of a health promotion program?

• A. Adequate funding
• B. Community engagement
• C. Support from local government
• D. Availability of resources

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Community engagement plays a pivotal role in the success of a health promotion program. When the community is actively involved, it helps in tailoring the program to meet their specific needs, garnering their support, and fostering sustainability.

5. What procedure is performed prior to a blood transfusion to detect incompatibilities?

• A. Grouping and crossmatching
• B. Complete blood count
• C. D-dimer test
• D. Blood clotting test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Grouping and crossmatching is the procedure performed prior to a blood transfusion to determine the blood type and identify any potential incompatibilities between the donor and recipient. This process involves testing the recipient's blood for ABO and Rh antigens and crossmatching it with the donor's blood to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions during the transfusion. Complete blood count, D-dimer test, and blood clotting test are other laboratory tests that serve different purposes and are not specifically done to detect incompatibilities prior to blood transfusion.

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