Nursing Elites

1. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?

• A. Preoccupation with calories
• B. Thick body hair
• C. Sore tongue
• D. Dry, brittle hair

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry, brittle hair. Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories (choice A) is more related to the psychological aspect of anorexia rather than a physical finding. Thick body hair (choice B) is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. A sore tongue (choice C) can be seen in conditions like vitamin deficiencies or oral health issues but is not specific to anorexia nervosa.

2. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Patient holding squad
• C. Area support squad
• D. Surgical squad

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Patient Holding Squad is the module composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients. The other choices are incorrect because a 'Treatment squad' would typically involve a broader range of medical care, an 'Area support squad' is more general and focuses on providing overall support in a specific area, and a 'Surgical squad' would be specifically focused on surgical procedures rather than general medical care for minimal care patients.

3. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

5. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast.
• C. I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee.
• D. I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.

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