Nursing Elites

1. What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?

• A. confusion and difficulty speaking
• B. headache and blurred vision
• C. chest pain and pressure
• D. claudication and peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.

2. Each is a portion of the alimentary canal, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Oral cavity
• B. Pharynx
• C. Larynx
• D. Esophagus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Larynx. The larynx is part of the respiratory system, responsible for voice production and breathing. The alimentary canal is involved in the digestive process and includes structures like the oral cavity (mouth), pharynx, and esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are parts of the alimentary canal, where digestion occurs, making them incorrect answers.

3. High blood pressure is defined as systolic and diastolic measurements greater than or equal to:

• A. 140 mm Hg and 90 mm Hg, respectively
• B. 150 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg, respectively
• C. 160 mm Hg and 110 mm Hg, respectively
• D. 180 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg, respectively

Correct answer: A

Rationale: High blood pressure, or hypertension, is typically defined as having a systolic pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher and/or a diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests a higher systolic measurement than the standard definition. Choice C is incorrect as it provides an even higher systolic measurement and a much higher diastolic measurement. Choice D is also incorrect as it suggests extremely elevated blood pressure values, well above the typical definition of hypertension.

4. A client with celiac disease should avoid which of the following?

• A. Quinoa
• B. Barley
• C. Rice
• D. Oats

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Barley. Barley contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Gluten triggers an immune response in people with celiac disease, damaging the lining of the small intestine. Choices A, C, and D (Quinoa, Rice, and Oats) are gluten-free and safe for individuals with celiac disease to consume.

5. Fat-soluble vitamins are different from water-soluble vitamins because the body is able to store only small amounts of fat-soluble vitamins.

• A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
• B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
• C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
• D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct. A major difference between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins is that the body is able to store larger amounts of fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamins A and D are stored for long periods; therefore, minor shortages might not be identified until drastic depletion has occurred. Observable signs and symptoms of a dietary deficiency are often not identified until they are in an advanced state. Water-soluble vitamins, on the other hand, are not stored in the body and are excreted in the urine if taken in excess, making it harder to reach toxic levels.

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