Nursing Elites

1. In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of:

• A. ECG
• B. General Anesthesia
• C. EEG
• D. MRI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: General Anesthesia. In preparation for ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy), the nurse should be aware that it is almost similar to the process of administering general anesthesia. This similarity is crucial as it involves sedation and muscle relaxation to ensure safety during the procedure. Choice A (ECG) is incorrect because ECT and ECG (Electrocardiogram) serve different purposes and involve distinct procedures. Choice C (EEG) is incorrect as EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures brain activity and is not directly related to ECT. Choice D (MRI) is also incorrect as MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that does not involve sedation or muscle relaxation like ECT and general anesthesia.

2. Surgery schedules are communicated to the OR usually a day prior to the procedure by the nurse of the floor or ward where the patient is confined. For orthopedic cases, what department is usually informed to be present in the OR?

• A. Rehabilitation department
• B. Laboratory department
• C. Maintenance department
• D. Radiology department

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

3. When observing a return demonstration of a colostomy irrigation, you know that more teaching is required if pt:

• A. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to inserting into the stoma
• B. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom door cloth hook during fluid insertion
• C. Discontinues the insertion of fluid after only 500 ml of fluid has been instilled
• D. Clamps of the flow of fluid when felling uncomfortable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. Each statement regarding the correlation between vitamin D and sun exposure is accurate, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. The body can produce sufficient amounts of vitamin D from sunlight.
• B. UV radiation can convert a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3 by penetrating uncovered skin.
• C. Sunscreen blocks the formation of vitamin D3.
• D. By the age of 70 years, the skin generally produces vitamin D at only half the level it did at the age of 20 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: While UV radiation can penetrate uncovered skin and convert a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3, sunscreen does block the formation of vitamin D3. Sunscreen is recommended by dermatologists to prevent sunburn and reduce the risk of skin cancer. The other choices are correct: the body can produce sufficient vitamin D from sunlight, UV radiation can convert a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3, and skin generally produces less vitamin D as a person ages.

5. Maternal malnutrition at a critical period of development may have lifelong effects on an individual's pattern of genetic expression and on the tendency to develop obesity, which is a concept known as _____.

• A. genetic determination
• B. metabolic tolerance
• C. chromosomal influence
• D. fetal programming

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal programming refers to the concept that maternal nutrition during critical periods of development can have long-term effects on an individual's health and risk of diseases like obesity.

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