Nursing Elites

1. In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of:

• A. ECG
• B. General Anesthesia
• C. EEG
• D. MRI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: General Anesthesia. In preparation for ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy), the nurse should be aware that it is almost similar to the process of administering general anesthesia. This similarity is crucial as it involves sedation and muscle relaxation to ensure safety during the procedure. Choice A (ECG) is incorrect because ECT and ECG (Electrocardiogram) serve different purposes and involve distinct procedures. Choice C (EEG) is incorrect as EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures brain activity and is not directly related to ECT. Choice D (MRI) is also incorrect as MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that does not involve sedation or muscle relaxation like ECT and general anesthesia.

2. One of the following statements is true with regards to the care of clients with depression:

• A. Only mentally ill persons commit suicide
• B. All depressed clients are considered potentially suicidal
• C. Most suicidal person gives no warning
• D. The chance of suicide lessens as depression lessens

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

3. Each of the following accurately describes aspects of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) published by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) except one. Which one is the exception?

• A. The DRIs replace the older recommended daily allowances
• B. Current DRIs attempt to estimate required nutrients to improve long-term health
• C. DRIs specifically address individuals whose requirements are affected by a disease state
• D. The DRIs attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. DRIs are intended for the general population and do not specifically address disease states, which are managed with different clinical guidelines. Choice A is correct as DRIs have replaced the older recommended daily allowances. Choice B is correct as current DRIs aim to estimate the required nutrients for long-term health. Choice D is correct as DRIs also attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.

4. What dietary strategy would most likely be used as part of lifestyle management to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease?

• A. Avoid foods that contain polyunsaturated fat
• B. Limit saturated fat to less than 10 percent of total calories
• C. Limit alcohol intake to one drink daily for women and two drinks daily for men
• D. Avoid consumption of fish and shellfish

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake is part of a strategy to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease by avoiding the negative cardiovascular effects associated with excessive alcohol consumption.

5. Which type of medication is most likely to induce xerostomia?

• A. Antibiotics
• B. Diuretics
• C. Local anesthetics
• D. Anticholinergics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Anticholinergics. Anticholinergic medications commonly cause xerostomia by inhibiting saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Antibiotics (choice A) are not typically associated with xerostomia. Diuretics (choice B) increase urine production but do not directly affect saliva production. Local anesthetics (choice C) are used to numb specific areas during dental procedures and do not induce xerostomia.

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