Nursing Elites

1. What laboratory value would be considered a high-risk measure for coronary heart disease assessment?

• A. triglycerides > 150 mg/dL
• B. BMI > 31
• C. LDL cholesterol < 128 mg/dL
• D. blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: BMI > 31. A BMI over 31 is considered a high-risk factor for coronary heart disease as it indicates obesity, which is strongly linked to cardiovascular issues. Triglycerides > 150 mg/dL (choice A) can contribute to heart disease risk but are not as specific as BMI in assessing overall risk. LDL cholesterol < 128 mg/dL (choice C) is actually a desirable level, indicating lower risk. A blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg (choice D) is within normal range and not a high-risk measure specifically for coronary heart disease.

2. A nurse is caring for an 8-month-old infant who screams when the parent leaves the room. The parent begins to cry and says, 'I don't understand why my child is so upset. I've never seen my child act this way around others before.' Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. This is a normal, expected reaction for a child of this age.
• B. This is a response to an overstimulating environment.
• C. This is a common reaction to an overexposure to caregivers.
• D. This is a typical reaction for a child who is sick.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'This is a normal, expected reaction for a child of this age.' Separation anxiety typically peaks around 8-10 months of age, leading to distress when separated from caregivers. Choice B is incorrect because the infant's behavior is more likely due to separation anxiety rather than overstimulation. Choice C is incorrect as the infant's behavior is not related to overexposure to caregivers but rather a natural developmental stage. Choice D is incorrect as the infant's behavior is not indicative of illness but rather a normal emotional response.

3. What type of drug would most likely be given to a patient following a myocardial infarction?

• A. antiemetic
• B. anticoagulant
• C. anticonvulsant
• D. antibiotic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticoagulants are the most suitable choice for a patient following a myocardial infarction. These medications are essential in preventing further blood clots from forming in the arteries, reducing the risk of complications such as strokes or recurrent heart attacks. Antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not directly related to myocardial infarction. Anticonvulsants are used to manage seizures, not typically indicated after a heart attack. Antibiotics are prescribed to treat bacterial infections, not routinely given after a myocardial infarction.

4. Commonly known as “shabu” is:

• A. Cannabis Sativa
• B. Lysergic acid diethylamide
• C. Methylenedioxy methamphetamine
• D. Methampetamine hydrochloride

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

5. A pregnant woman has applied to use WIC services to supplement her food intake. The WIC program would provide vouchers for _____ in this situation.

• A. lean beef
• B. fruit-flavored yogurt
• C. whole grain bread
• D. refried beans

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: whole grain bread. The WIC program aims to provide nutritious foods to support a healthy diet during pregnancy. Whole grain bread is a good source of fiber and essential nutrients. Choice A, lean beef, is a protein source but may not be as versatile as whole grain bread in providing a variety of nutrients essential during pregnancy. Choice B, fruit-flavored yogurt, may contain added sugars and may not offer the same level of essential nutrients as whole grain bread. Choice D, refried beans, is a good source of protein and fiber, but whole grain bread is often a staple recommended in pregnancy for its nutritional benefits.

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