ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?
- A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
- B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
- C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
- D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.
2. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
- A. Pacing and restlessness
- B. Verbal threats
- C. History of violence
- D. Substance abuse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
4. A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?
- A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
- B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
- C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
- D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
5. Which chronic medical condition commonly triggers major depressive disorder?
- A. Pain
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hypothyroidism
- D. Crohn's disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chronic pain is a common trigger for major depressive disorder. The persistent and distressing nature of chronic pain can lead to feelings of hopelessness, helplessness, and contribute to the development of major depressive disorder in individuals experiencing it.
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