Nursing Elites

1. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?

• A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
• B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
• C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
• D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.

2. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

3. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is being discharged. Which of the following instructions should the nurse not include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Practice relaxation techniques daily
• B. Avoid caffeine and alcohol
• C. Engage in regular physical activity
• D. Use benzodiazepines as the first-line treatment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discharge instructions for a client with GAD should include practicing relaxation techniques daily, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, engaging in regular physical activity, and seeking support from friends and family. Benzodiazepines are not recommended as the first-line treatment due to their potential for dependence and should not be included in the discharge teaching.

4. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?

• A. Her memory problems will likely decrease.
• B. Depressive episodes should be less severe.
• C. She will probably enjoy social interactions more.
• D. She should experience a reduction in hallucinations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.

5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

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