Nursing Elites

1. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?

• A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
• B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
• C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
• D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.

2. Which of the following are potential side effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Short-term memory loss
• B. Headache
• C. Confusion
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potential side effects of ECT include short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, particularly antipsychotics that block dopamine receptors over time. ECT is primarily used for severe depression, bipolar disorder, and certain psychotic disorders. The other choices, short-term memory loss, headache, and confusion, are known side effects of ECT and are usually short-term and manageable.

3. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

• A. Pacing and restlessness
• B. Verbal threats
• C. History of violence
• D. Substance abuse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

4. A client diagnosed with panic disorder is receiving discharge teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid caffeine and other stimulants.
• B. I should take my medication only when I feel anxious.
• C. I should use relaxation techniques to manage anxiety.
• D. I should avoid exercising to prevent triggering anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding caffeine and other stimulants is crucial for clients with panic disorder as these substances can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Caffeine can trigger or worsen anxiety, leading to increased heart rate and restlessness. By eliminating stimulants, the client can better manage their anxiety levels and reduce the risk of panic attacks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking medication only when feeling anxious may lead to inconsistent treatment, using relaxation techniques alone may not be sufficient for managing panic disorder, and avoiding exercise can actually be counterproductive as regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and stress levels.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

Similar Questions