ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?
- A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
- B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
- C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
- D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.
2. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
- A. Pacing and restlessness
- B. Verbal threats
- C. History of violence
- D. Substance abuse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the provider expect the client to exhibit?
- A. A lack of remorse for wrongdoing
- B. A fear of gaining weight
- C. A need for constant reassurance
- D. A willingness to take responsibility for actions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically exhibit a lack of remorse for their actions. They may disregard the rights of others, engage in deceitful and manipulative behaviors, and show a consistent pattern of irresponsibility and disregard for social norms. This behavior is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical behaviors associated with antisocial personality disorder. Fear of gaining weight is more indicative of an eating disorder rather than antisocial personality disorder. Needing constant reassurance is not a common trait of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Additionally, individuals with this disorder often avoid taking responsibility for their actions.
4. In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?
- A. Clonazepam
- B. Buspirone
- C. Propranolol
- D. Hydroxyzine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.
5. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?
- A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it difficult to differentiate between them.
- B. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished.
- C. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome can experience temporary paralysis during naps.
- D. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with catatonia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.
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