which should the nurse recognize as an example of the defense mechanism of repression
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which should the individual recognize as an example of the defense mechanism of repression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repression is a defense mechanism where distressing thoughts, feelings, or memories are pushed out of conscious awareness to protect the individual from emotional pain. In this scenario, the woman's inability to recall the traumatic event of being raped at the age of 12 indicates repression in action. Choices A, B, and C do not represent repression. Choice A reflects procrastination, choice B suggests denial, and choice C indicates sublimation as the man is channeling his unhappiness into a constructive pursuit.

2. When developing a care plan for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which of the following interventions should not be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), it is essential to consider therapeutic interventions. Encouraging the client to avoid anxiety-provoking situations is not recommended as it can reinforce their anxiety. Teaching relaxation techniques, encouraging the expression of feelings, and providing a structured daily routine are beneficial strategies in managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting coping skills and emotional expression while fostering stability and predictability.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing moderate anxiety during questioning. Which symptom shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpitations are not typically associated with moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting are common behavioral symptoms of heightened stress levels. Palpitations may be more indicative of physiological responses, such as increased heart rate, which can occur in severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other signs of severe anxiety include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

4. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

5. A client has been prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid consuming alcohol while taking escitalopram (Lexapro). Alcohol can potentiate side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness when combined with this medication. Choice A is incorrect because escitalopram is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia if taken at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because taking the medication with or without food does not significantly affect its absorption or side effects. Choice D is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue taking the medication even if they start feeling better, as abruptly stopping an antidepressant can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

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