Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary role of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting?

• A. To enforce hospital policies
• B. To oversee patient care
• C. To manage the financial aspects of the unit
• D. To ensure efficient operation of the unit

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary role of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting is to ensure the efficient operation of the unit. While enforcing hospital policies and overseeing patient care are important aspects of their role, the main responsibility lies in ensuring the smooth and effective functioning of the unit. Managing the financial aspects of the unit is also crucial, but it is not the primary role of a nurse manager, as their focus is more on operational efficiency and quality of care.

2. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

3. During a performance appraisal, how should the manager best provide constructive feedback to an employee?

• A. Focus only on the negative aspects of performance
• B. Provide general comments without specifics
• C. Discuss specific examples of strengths and areas for improvement
• D. Delay feedback until the next appraisal period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a performance appraisal, the best approach to provide constructive feedback is by discussing specific examples of strengths and areas for improvement. This method allows the employee to understand what they are excelling at and where they need to focus on development. By highlighting both aspects, the employee can work on enhancing their performance effectively. Option A is incorrect because solely focusing on the negative aspects can demotivate the employee and hinder their growth. Option B is incorrect as providing general comments without specifics does not offer clear guidance for improvement. Option D is also incorrect as delaying feedback can prevent timely corrective actions and hinder performance progress.

4. Which of the following conditions would be well suited to the use of a nursing critical pathway?

• A. Foreign object in the ear
• B. Fever of unknown origin
• C. Hip replacement surgery
• D. Bacterial infection acquired in a foreign country

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A critical pathway is designed to track a patient's progress through a specific timeline, including assessments, interventions, treatments, and outcomes. Hip replacement surgery is well suited for a nursing critical pathway because it has a defined timeline with specific interventions and treatments aimed at achieving optimal functioning. Choices A, B, and D do not typically follow a structured timeline with predetermined interventions and outcomes, making them less suitable for a critical pathway.

5. Which laboratory value reported to the nurse by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates the most urgent need for the nurse�s assessment of the patient?

• A. Bedtime glucose of 140 mg/dL
• B. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL
• C. Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL
• D. 2-hr postprandial glucose of 220 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

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