Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?

• A. Assess an applicant's motivation
• B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
• C. Assess an applicant's skills
• D. Assess an applicant's ability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.

2. Which laboratory value reported to the nurse by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates the most urgent need for the nurse�s assessment of the patient?

• A. Bedtime glucose of 140 mg/dL
• B. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL
• C. Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL
• D. 2-hr postprandial glucose of 220 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

3. A client discharges AMA (against medical advice). This is an example of the _________ type of risk category?

• A. nurse-focused
• B. physician-focused
• C. medical-legal incident
• D. Patient-focused

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client discharges AMA, it falls under the medical-legal incident risk category. This choice focuses on the legal aspect of the situation, as it involves the patient's right to make decisions about their care, informed consent, and the associated legal implications. Choices A and B are incorrect as they unnecessarily specify individual healthcare roles and do not encompass the broader legal implications of discharging against medical advice. Choice D, patient-focused, is also incorrect as it doesn't capture the legal and risk-related aspects of the scenario.

4. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?

• A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
• B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
• C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
• D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.

5. Which of the following are considered part of the operating expenses within health care organizations? (EXCEPT)

• A. Maintenance costs
• B. Rental fees
• C. Renovation costs
• D. Supplies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Operating expenses in health care organizations typically include costs like maintenance, rental fees, and supplies as they are necessary for the day-to-day operations. Renovation costs, on the other hand, are considered capital expenses as they involve significant improvements to facilities rather than routine operational expenses. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are part of operating expenses in health care organizations because they directly contribute to the ongoing operational needs.

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