Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?

• A. Assess an applicant's motivation
• B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
• C. Assess an applicant's skills
• D. Assess an applicant's ability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.

2. What is the main goal of a nursing quality improvement (QI) program?

• A. To enhance patient safety
• B. To reduce healthcare costs
• C. To ensure regulatory compliance
• D. To maintain high patient satisfaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main goal of a nursing quality improvement (QI) program is to enhance patient safety. While reducing healthcare costs, ensuring regulatory compliance, and maintaining high patient satisfaction are important aspects of healthcare delivery, the primary focus of a QI program in nursing is to improve patient safety through practices such as error reduction, risk management, and enhancing the quality of care provided.

3. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of disruptive conflict. In disruptive conflict, the parties involved engage in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. The resident refusing to answer calls and the nurse retaliating with frequent calls to 'get back' at him exemplify behaviors aimed at causing disruption and conflict between them. Perceived conflict refers to each party's perception of the other's position, competitive conflict involves one side winning at the expense of the other, and felt conflict is about the feelings of opposition within the relationship, none of which fully capture the nature of the conflict displayed in this scenario.

4. A client experiences difficulty breathing after the change of shift. The nurse on duty discovers that the IVFs were infusing at a rate 10 times the calculated normal. After notifying the physician and correcting the rate, what should be the next step in the client's care?

• A. Notify family
• B. Discipline the previous nurse
• C. Complete an incident report
• D. Obtain legal consultation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct next step in the client's care after notifying the physician and correcting the rate of IVFs is to complete an incident report. This report is essential for documenting the adverse event, analyzing the cause, and implementing preventive measures to avoid similar incidents in the future. Notifying the family, disciplining the previous nurse, and obtaining legal consultation are not immediate priorities in this situation. Family notification may follow the incident report, disciplining the previous nurse is a separate administrative process, and legal consultation is usually not required for a medical error corrected promptly.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?

• A. Urine is positive for ketones
• B. Urine has an unusual odor
• C. Urine specific gravity is 1.035 (normal range: 1.010 to 1.025)
• D. Bladder scan shows 525 mL of urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ketones in the urine may indicate infection or blockage in the urinary catheter, necessitating irrigation to ensure proper drainage. Choice B, an unusual odor in the urine, may suggest infection but does not directly indicate the need for catheter irrigation. Choice C, a high urine specific gravity, is indicative of concentrated urine but does not specifically point to the need for catheter irrigation. Choice D, a bladder scan showing 525 mL of urine, indicates urine retention, which may require catheterization or further assessment but not necessarily irrigation.

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