Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?

• A. Assess an applicant's motivation
• B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
• C. Assess an applicant's skills
• D. Assess an applicant's ability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.

2. The nurse has been teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about managing blood glucose levels and taking glipizide (Glucotrol). Which patient statement indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. �If I overeat at a meal, I will still take the usual dose of medication.�
• B. �Other medications besides the Glucotrol may affect my blood sugar.�
• C. �When I am ill, I may have to take insulin to control my blood sugar.�
• D. �My diabetes won�t cause complications because I don�t need insulin.�

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. A 32-year-old patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage?

• A. Lispro (Humalog)
• B. Glargine (Lantus)
• C. Detemir (Levemir)
• D. NPH (Humulin N)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For mealtime coverage in intensive insulin therapy, rapid-acting insulins like Lispro (Humalog) are used. Lispro has a quick onset of action, making it suitable for covering the rise in blood sugar levels after meals. Glargine (Lantus), Detemir (Levemir), and NPH (Humulin N) are all long-acting insulins and are not appropriate for mealtime coverage as they do not act quickly enough to manage postprandial glucose spikes.

4. What is the main focus of a clinical governance framework?

• A. Financial performance
• B. Regulatory compliance
• C. Patient care quality
• D. Staff satisfaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main focus of a clinical governance framework is patient care quality. This framework is designed to ensure that patient care is safe, effective, and patient-centered. Choice A, financial performance, is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, although financial aspects may be considered. Choice B, regulatory compliance, is important but not the primary focus of a clinical governance framework. Choice D, staff satisfaction, is also important but is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, which primarily centers around patient care quality.

5. Which of the following best describes the concept of shared decision-making in healthcare?

• A. The process by which patients make healthcare decisions on their own
• B. A collaborative process that allows patients and providers to make healthcare decisions together
• C. A method for providers to dictate treatment plans to patients
• D. The use of evidence-based guidelines to make healthcare decisions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shared decision-making in healthcare involves a collaborative process between patients and providers to make healthcare decisions together. This approach considers the patient's preferences, values, and the best available evidence to reach a decision that aligns with the patient's goals. Choice A is incorrect because shared decision-making does not involve patients making decisions on their own. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a paternalistic approach where providers dictate treatment plans to patients without involving them in the decision-making process. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the use of evidence-based guidelines, which is important but not the sole focus of shared decision-making.

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