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1. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?
- A. Assess an applicant's motivation
- B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
- C. Assess an applicant's skills
- D. Assess an applicant's ability
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.
2. Staff refuse to report unsafe conditions, with unattended entrances throughout the health care facility noted. Unidentified individuals are wandering the unit at night, and you:
- A. Establish expectations.
- B. Demand that they leave immediately.
- C. Ask them to leave.
- D. Observe their behaviors.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct course of action is to establish expectations. By setting clear guidelines and expectations, you can address the issue of unidentified individuals wandering the unit at night in a proactive manner. This approach helps communicate what behaviors are acceptable, ensuring the safety of both staff and patients. Demanding that they leave immediately may not address the root cause of the problem and could escalate the situation. Simply observing their behaviors may not effectively resolve the issue or prevent future incidents. Asking them to leave without first establishing expectations may not prevent similar occurrences in the future.
3. When addressing a policy violation, what is one of the initial steps to take?
- A. Terminate the employee.
- B. Confront the employee.
- C. Discipline the employee immediately.
- D. Determine whether the employee is aware of the policy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When addressing a policy violation, one of the initial steps should be to determine whether the employee is aware of the policy. This step allows for clarification, feedback, and potential training if needed. Terminating the employee (Choice A) or disciplining immediately (Choice C) without assessing awareness can lead to unfair treatment and legal issues. Confronting the employee (Choice B) may be necessary but should come after establishing awareness and providing necessary support or education.
4. When planning care for a client with vision loss, which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to assist the client with feeding?
- A. Arrange food in a consistent pattern on the client's plate
- B. Thicken liquids on the client's tray
- C. Provide small-handled utensils for the client
- D. Assign a staff member to feed the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client has vision loss, arranging food in a consistent pattern on the plate can help them locate and identify different food items more easily. This intervention promotes independence and allows the client to feed themselves with greater ease. Thicking liquids on the tray, providing small-handled utensils, or assigning a staff member to feed the client may not directly address the client's need for assistance with feeding due to vision loss. Thicking liquids is more related to swallowing difficulties, providing small-handled utensils can be helpful for clients with limited dexterity, and assigning a staff member to feed the client may not promote independence.
5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
- B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
- C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
- D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
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