ATI RN
ATI Proctored Leadership Exam
1.
- A. The patient administers the glargine 30 minutes before each meal
- B.
- C. The patient draws up the regular insulin and then the glargine in the same syringe.
- D. The patient disposes of the open vials of glargine and regular insulin after 4 weeks
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
2. Who is the best person to describe the job to an applicant?
- A. Previous employee
- B. Human resource manager
- C. Nursing manager
- D. Chief operating officer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nursing manager is the most suitable person to describe the job to an applicant because they are directly involved in the day-to-day operations and requirements of the position. They have firsthand knowledge of the job responsibilities, expectations, and qualifications needed. Human resource managers are involved in recruitment but may not have the detailed operational knowledge that a nursing manager possesses. A previous employee may provide insights into the work environment but may not have a comprehensive understanding of the current job requirements. The chief operating officer oversees the organization's overall operations and strategy, so they may not have the specific details about the job to effectively describe it to an applicant.
3. When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client, what action should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?
- A. Keep the feet close together.
- B. Use the back muscles for lifting.
- C. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting it.
- D. Bend at the waist.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Keep the feet close together.' When lifting a heavy object such as a bedside cabinet, it is essential to maintain a wide base of support by keeping the feet close together. This provides better stability and reduces the risk of injury. Choice B is incorrect because using the back muscles for lifting can lead to back strain and injury; it is recommended to use the legs instead. Choice C is incorrect as standing close to the cabinet may cause the nurse to lose balance and strain the back. Choice D is incorrect because bending at the waist increases the risk of back injury. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate action is to keep the feet close together to ensure stability and prevent self-injury.
4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?
- A. Blood pressure screening
- B. Administering medications
- C. Developing a care plan
- D. Providing rehabilitation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.
5. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
- A. Increase in hematocrit
- B. Increase in respiratory rate
- C. Decrease in heart rate
- D. Decrease in capillary refill time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease in capillary refill time. In a client with fluid volume deficit, improving capillary refill time indicates that the perfusion status is improving due to the increase in fluid volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. An increase in hematocrit may indicate hemoconcentration due to fluid loss, an increase in respiratory rate may suggest respiratory distress, and a decrease in heart rate may not be directly related to fluid volume status.
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