which of the following is a common characteristic of a high performing healthcare team
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Leadership Exam

1. Which of the following is a common characteristic of a high-performing healthcare team?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Collaborative decision making is a key characteristic of a high-performing healthcare team because it involves team members working together to make decisions that lead to the best outcomes for patients. Effective communication is important in any team, but collaborative decision making goes beyond communication by involving team members in the decision-making process. Shared leadership is also crucial for a high-performing team, as it promotes equality and empowerment among team members. On the other hand, a hierarchical structure can hinder effective communication and teamwork by creating barriers between team members and limiting input from all team members, which is counterproductive to achieving optimal healthcare outcomes.

2. The healthcare provider is developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure (CHF). Which components are essential to include? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Critical pathways are designed to outline the expected sequence and timing of interventions to achieve optimal patient outcomes for a specific medical condition. Components such as the expected length of stay, patient outcomes, and medical diagnosis are crucial in developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure. However, the assigned staff healthcare provider is not typically a fixed component of a critical pathway as it may vary based on staffing schedules and rotations. Therefore, the assigned staff healthcare provider is the component that does not apply.

3. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working in the diabetic clinic?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure the ankle-brachial index. This task involves using a Doppler ultrasound device to assess blood flow, which can be safely delegated to UAP. Choices B, C, and D require a higher level of assessment and interpretation that should be performed by licensed nursing staff. Checking for changes in skin pigmentation (B) and assessing for foot drop (C) involve more complex assessments that require nursing judgment. Asking about symptoms of depression (D) involves a psychosocial assessment, which should be performed by licensed personnel qualified to address mental health concerns.

4. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours รท 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

5. Which of the following is used as an indirect estimate of voluntary absenteeism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence frequency.' Absence frequency is the total number of distinct absence periods, regardless of duration. It is used as an indirect estimate of voluntary absenteeism because it provides insights into the frequency of absences. Voluntary absenteeism refers to absences that are under the employee's control, while involuntary absenteeism is not under their control. Total time lost, on the other hand, represents the number of scheduled days that employees miss, which is different from absence frequency.

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