Nursing Elites

1. When matching a job with an experienced RN, what is the first step in the selection process?

• A. Job analysis
• B. Selection techniques
• C. Methods of recruiting
• D. Assurance of legal requirements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, job analysis. Job analysis is the first step in the selection process as it involves gathering information about the duties, responsibilities, necessary skills, outcomes, and work environment of a particular job. This information is crucial in creating an accurate job description and specification that will guide the recruitment and selection process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while selection techniques, methods of recruiting, and legal requirements are important aspects of the selection process, they come after the job analysis has been completed.

2. A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to

• A. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved
• B. limit calorie intake until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL
• C. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise
• D. decrease carbohydrate intake until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should advise the patient to monitor her blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. This is important because the patient is experiencing symptoms of an illness (sore throat and runny nose) that can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. By monitoring frequently, any significant rise in blood glucose can be detected early, enabling prompt intervention. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping glargine (Lantus) insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake is not the appropriate immediate action for managing high blood glucose levels. Choice D is also incorrect as adjusting carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

3. Which of the following best describes decertification?

• A. Encourage union affiliation
• B. Change union affiliation
• C. Reward union affiliation
• D. Empower union affiliation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Decertification is the process of removing or changing union affiliation. Choosing option B, 'Change union affiliation,' correctly reflects this definition. Option A, 'Encourage union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification is not about promoting union membership but rather altering it. Option C, 'Reward union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification does not involve rewarding union membership. Option D, 'Empower union affiliation,' is incorrect as decertification does not empower union membership but rather modifies or eliminates it.

4. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

• A. Only during highly stressful situations.
• B. When there is little to no stress.
• C. Under highly structured situations.
• D. When the situation is loosely structured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

5. Which of the following is a key principle of the patient-centered care model?

• A. Healthcare provider satisfaction
• B. Cost reduction
• C. Patient autonomy
• D. Provider convenience

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Patient autonomy. Patient-centered care focuses on respecting and responding to patient preferences and needs, making patient autonomy a key principle. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the patient-centered care model prioritizes the patient's well-being and involvement in decision-making over healthcare provider satisfaction, cost reduction, or provider convenience.

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