Nursing Elites

1. When matching a job with an experienced RN, what is the first step in the selection process?

• A. Job analysis
• B. Selection techniques
• C. Methods of recruiting
• D. Assurance of legal requirements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, job analysis. Job analysis is the first step in the selection process as it involves gathering information about the duties, responsibilities, necessary skills, outcomes, and work environment of a particular job. This information is crucial in creating an accurate job description and specification that will guide the recruitment and selection process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while selection techniques, methods of recruiting, and legal requirements are important aspects of the selection process, they come after the job analysis has been completed.

2. Which of the following is an example of an effective conflict resolution strategy?

• A. Ignoring the conflict
• B. Assigning blame to one party
• C. Encouraging open communication
• D. Enforcing strict rules

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging open communication is an effective conflict resolution strategy because it promotes transparency, understanding, and collaboration among individuals involved in the conflict. By encouraging open communication, parties can express their perspectives, concerns, and needs, leading to the identification of common ground and potential solutions. This approach fosters a positive and constructive environment for resolving conflicts and can help prevent misunderstandings and escalation of issues. Choices A, B, and D are not effective conflict resolution strategies. Ignoring the conflict can lead to unresolved issues, assigning blame can escalate tensions and hinder problem-solving, and enforcing strict rules may not address the underlying causes of the conflict or promote mutual understanding.

3. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

• A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
• B. After one month of employment
• C. After three months of employment
• D. After a certain tenure period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

4. What is the primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal?

• A. Providing constructive feedback.
• B. Imposing punishment.
• C. Identifying issues.
• D. Offering coaching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal is to provide constructive feedback to employees. This feedback helps employees understand what is expected of them, how well they are performing, and areas where they can improve. Choice B (Imposing punishment) is incorrect because performance appraisals should focus on development rather than punishment. Choice C (Identifying issues) is not the primary reason but can be a secondary outcome of performance appraisals. Choice D (Offering coaching) is related to providing guidance and support, which is a part of the feedback process but not the primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal.

5. When should the nurse initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process
• B. As soon as the client's condition is stable
• C. After consulting with the client's family
• D. During the initial team conference

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct time for the nurse to initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure is as soon as the client's condition is stable. Discharge planning should begin early to ensure a smooth transition and continuity of care. While involving the client's family in the planning process is crucial, the primary focus should be on starting the preparations for discharge once the client's immediate health concerns are addressed and their condition is stable. Waiting for a team conference or after consulting with the family may delay the planning process, which is not ideal in ensuring a timely and effective discharge plan.

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