Nursing Elites

1. What is the first-line treatment for a febrile seizure in a child?

• A. Antipyretics
• B. Anticonvulsants
• C. Cooling blankets
• D. IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Antipyretics. Febrile seizures in children are usually associated with fever. The first-line treatment aims to reduce fever, which can help prevent febrile seizures. Antipyretics like acetaminophen or ibuprofen are commonly used for this purpose. Anticonvulsants, while used for treating seizures, are not typically the first-line treatment for febrile seizures as they are usually self-limited and resolve on their own. Cooling blankets can be used to lower body temperature in cases of hyperthermia but are not the primary treatment for febrile seizures. IV fluids may be administered in cases of dehydration due to fever or if the child cannot tolerate oral intake, but they are not the first-line treatment for febrile seizures.

2. What is the primary symptom of congenital diaphragmatic hernia in a newborn?

• A. Cyanosis
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Absent breath sounds
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Absent breath sounds on the affected side are a primary symptom of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. Cyanosis, bradycardia, and tachypnea may also be present but are not the primary symptom. Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation, bradycardia is a slower than normal heart rate, and tachypnea is rapid breathing.

3. An infant has been diagnosed with failure to thrive (FTT) classified according to the pathophysiology of defective utilization. The nurse understands that the reason for the FTT is most likely related to what?

• A. Cystic fibrosis
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Congenital infection
• D. Breastfeeding problems

Correct answer: C

Rationale: FTT classified as defective utilization is often related to conditions like congenital infections, which interfere with the body's ability to effectively use nutrients. Conditions like cystic fibrosis and hyperthyroidism can also contribute to FTT but are categorized differently

4. In assessing sexual maturity levels, which tool would you expect to use?

• A. Denver II Developmental Screening
• B. Tanner staging
• C. Antibody testing
• D. Nursing process

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tanner staging. Tanner staging is a tool specifically used to assess sexual maturity in adolescents based on the development of secondary sexual characteristics. The Tanner scale ranges from stage 1 (prepubertal) to stage 5 (adult maturity). This tool helps healthcare providers evaluate the physical development and sexual maturation of individuals. Choice A, the Denver II Developmental Screening, is used to assess developmental milestones in children. Choice C, antibody testing, is a diagnostic tool used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in the blood. Choice D, the nursing process, is a systematic method that nurses use to deliver patient-centered care, involving assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

5. Chemicals, agents, or factors that cause physical defects in the developing embryo and are most harmful during organogenesis are:

• A. Teratogens
• B. Heterozygous
• C. Inborn errors
• D. Multifactorial

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Teratogens are substances that can cause congenital abnormalities, especially during the first trimester when organogenesis occurs. Choice A, Teratogens, is the correct answer as it specifically refers to substances that cause physical defects in the developing embryo. Choices B, Heterozygous, C, Inborn errors, and D, Multifactorial, are incorrect as they do not directly relate to substances that cause physical defects in embryos during organogenesis.

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