Nursing Elites

1. What is the definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence?

• A. Failure to follow personal standards of care
• B. Failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner by a professional
• C. Harm caused by a healthcare team due to miscommunication
• D. Failure to document patient care properly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner by a professional. This choice is correct because malpractice occurs when a professional does not meet the standard of care expected in their field, leading to harm or injury to the client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because malpractice is specifically about the failure to meet professional standards of care, rather than personal standards, miscommunication within a healthcare team, or inadequate documentation of patient care.

2. A nurse is preparing to perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Remain still once the gel pads are attached
• B. I will be placing electrodes on your chest
• C. I will lower the head of your bed so you can sit up
• D. Breathe normally throughout the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to remain still once the gel pads are attached is crucial to obtaining accurate ECG readings. Choice B is incorrect as electrodes are typically placed on the chest, not the breast. Choice C is incorrect because the client should lie flat during an ECG, not sit up. Choice D is incorrect because the client should breathe normally, rather than holding their breath, throughout the procedure.

3. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. A client with a fever of 100°F
• C. A client scheduled for surgery
• D. A client with stable vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.

4. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about standards for Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). Which of the following statements by an employee should the nurse manager identify as an example of the QSEN concept of quality improvement?

• A. We should start tracking how soon clients are discharged after laparoscopic versus open surgery.
• B. We should involve our clients' partners in care planning as much as possible.
• C. We should be sure to log out of the computers immediately following documentation.
• D. We should provide change-of-shift report as a team, including the assistive personnel who assisted with care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Involving partners in care planning is a quality improvement strategy that aligns with QSEN principles. This choice reflects patient-centered care and collaboration, which are essential elements of quality improvement. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to quality improvement concepts. Tracking discharge times, logging out of computers, and providing change-of-shift reports are important practices but not specifically focused on quality improvement.

5. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

• A. Finger
• B. Earlobe
• C. Toe
• D. Skin fold

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

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