ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?
- A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
- B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
- D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.
3. A nurse discovers a discrepancy in the narcotics log. What is the appropriate next step?
- A. Correct the log and notify the pharmacy.
- B. Report the discrepancy to the nurse manager.
- C. Re-administer the narcotic.
- D. Dispose of the narcotic and note the discrepancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse discovers a discrepancy in the narcotics log, the appropriate next step is to report the discrepancy to the nurse manager. This is important to ensure that the issue is properly investigated and addressed. Choice A is incorrect because simply correcting the log and notifying the pharmacy may not address the root cause of the discrepancy. Choice C is incorrect as re-administering the narcotic without clarification could lead to potential harm or legal issues. Choice D is incorrect as disposing of the narcotic without following proper protocols and documentation could result in further complications.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
- B. Administer furosemide to the client
- C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
- D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.
5. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
- A. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours
- B. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns
- C. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently
- D. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.
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