ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
2. A client is undergoing chemotherapy and expresses concern about hair loss. What is the best response?
- A. Reassure the client that hair loss is not permanent.
- B. Provide resources for wigs or hairpieces.
- C. Encourage the client to cut their hair short in advance.
- D. Advise the client that chemotherapy causes temporary hair loss.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response when a client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss is to advise them that chemotherapy causes temporary hair loss. This response provides accurate information to the client about the side effect they are experiencing. Choice A is incorrect because it may provide false reassurance as for some individuals, hair loss can be a challenging experience. Choice B is not the best initial response as addressing the client's concerns and providing information should come first. Choice C is not the most appropriate response as cutting hair short may not necessarily prevent hair loss and does not address the client's concerns about the temporary nature of chemotherapy-induced hair loss.
3. After placing the patient back in bed, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Re-assess the patient.
- B. Complete an incident report.
- C. Notify the health care provider.
- D. Do nothing, no harm has occurred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After placing the patient back in bed, the nurse should notify the health care provider. This is important because the health care provider needs to be informed of the incident and assess the patient further to ensure no underlying injuries or issues exist. Re-assessing the patient is crucial but notifying the health care provider takes precedence in this situation. Completing an incident report is important for documentation purposes but not the immediate next step. Doing nothing is incorrect as there was an incident involving a fall that needs further evaluation.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient with an infection. Which laboratory result is most important to monitor?
- A. White blood cell count (WBC)
- B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
- C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell count (WBC). Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial when caring for a patient with an infection as it helps assess the body's response to the infection. An elevated white blood cell count often indicates an active infection or inflammation, while a decreasing count may signal improvement or potential complications. C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are nonspecific markers of inflammation and not as specific to monitoring infection progression as the white blood cell count. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume, but they are not the primary indicators for monitoring infection.
5. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
- A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
- B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
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