Nursing Elites

1. What is the best way to monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?

• A. Check the central line site daily
• B. Monitor the patient's vital signs
• C. Check the central line dressing every other day
• D. Check for signs of sepsis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check the central line site daily. Monitoring the central line site daily is crucial in detecting early signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, tenderness, or drainage. By checking the site regularly, healthcare providers can take prompt action to prevent complications. Choice B, monitoring the patient's vital signs, while important in assessing overall health, may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line. Choice C, checking the central line dressing every other day, may not be frequent enough to catch early signs of infection. Choice D, checking for signs of sepsis, is important but represents a more severe stage of infection and may occur after local signs at the central line site have already manifested.

2. A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?

• A. Administer the feeding over 60 minutes.
• B. Position the client in a supine position during feedings.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Flush the feeding tube with 60 mL of water before each feeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.

3. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath.
• B. A client who is postoperative and has abdominal distention.
• C. A client who is receiving IV fluids and has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
• D. A client who has cancer and has been receiving radiation therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.

4. A client is receiving continuous IV nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Keep calcium gluconate at the bedside.
• B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
• C. Limit IV exposure to light.
• D. Attach an inline filter to the IV tubing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to limit IV exposure to light. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to its degradation, potentially reducing its efficacy in treating severe hypertension. Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside (Choice A) is not directly related to managing nitroprusside infusion. While monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is important in managing hypertension, it is not the immediate action required to ensure medication efficacy. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) may help filter particles but does not address the critical concern of light sensitivity associated with nitroprusside administration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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