a nurse is caring for a client who speaks a language different from the nurse which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a language different from the nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client who speaks a different language is to review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter. This ensures compliance with best practices for communication when using interpreters, maintaining accuracy and confidentiality. Requesting an interpreter of a different sex from the client (Choice A) is not relevant to effective communication. Asking a family member or friend to interpret (Choice B) can lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Directing attention toward the interpreter (Choice C) is not as crucial as understanding the facility's policy on interpreter use.

2. A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient on furosemide for fluid balance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring a patient's daily weight is crucial when assessing fluid balance in individuals prescribed furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt. Changes in weight can reflect fluid shifts, making daily weight monitoring a reliable indicator of fluid status. While checking for edema and monitoring input and output are essential aspects of fluid balance assessment, they may not provide as immediate and quantifiable information as daily weight measurements. Monitoring blood pressure is important in patients on furosemide due to its potential to affect blood pressure levels, but it is not as directly indicative of fluid balance as daily weight monitoring.

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