Nursing Elites

1. What is functional behavior analysis?

• A. Systematic observation of behavior
• B. Standardized assessment
• C. Multiple choice examination
• D. Parent-teacher questionnaire

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Functional behavior analysis involves systematically observing behavior to understand its function and context. It focuses on identifying the antecedents and consequences that maintain or influence behavior. This systematic observation helps in determining patterns, triggers, and maintaining factors of behavior. Standardized assessments (choice B) involve using specific tools or tests to measure a person's performance or behavior but do not focus on observation. Multiple choice examinations (choice C) and parent-teacher questionnaires (choice D) are not synonymous with functional behavior analysis as they do not involve direct observation of behavior for analysis.

2. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

3. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer IV push protamine sulfate
• B. Continue with the current prescription.
• C. Prepare to administer Vitamin K
• D. Call healthcare provider to increase the dose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

4. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

5. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Administer aspirin as needed for fever.
• B. Avoid venipunctures whenever possible.
• C. Encourage the child to participate in contact sports.
• D. Administer ibuprofen for pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid venipunctures whenever possible.' Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Venipunctures can cause bleeding in these patients; therefore, they should be avoided whenever possible. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin should be avoided in patients with thrombocytopenia as it can further increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice C is incorrect because participating in contact sports can also increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a child with thrombocytopenia. Choice D is incorrect as ibuprofen, like aspirin, can also increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided in these patients.

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