Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care to address nutritional needs for a preschooler with cystic fibrosis. Which interventions should the nurse include in plans?

• A. Administer pancreatic enzymes 2 hours after meals.
• B. Monitor and adjust the use of pancreatic enzymes if steatorrhea develops.
• C. Encourage adequate fluid intake based on the child's needs.
• D. Increase fat content in the child's diet to 40% of total calories.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increasing fat content in the diet is essential for meeting the high energy needs of a child with cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis impairs the absorption of nutrients, particularly fats, so increasing the fat content in the child's diet to 40% of total calories helps ensure adequate caloric intake. This intervention can help maintain the child's nutritional status and support growth and development.

2. Which of the following is a common issue experienced by families of children with ASD?

• A. Financial limitations
• B. Social isolation
• C. Difficulty accessing needed services
• D. Difficulty obtaining early diagnosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Families of children with ASD commonly experience challenges in accessing needed services. This can include difficulties in obtaining appropriate therapies, educational support, and specialized interventions. While financial limitations and social isolation are also significant issues faced by these families, the primary concern often revolves around the challenges in accessing essential services for their children.

3. What does the abbreviation BPD mean in a medical chart?

• A. Brain premature deficit
• B. Bronchiopulmonary dysplasia
• C. Bilateral partial disorder
• D. Baby post delivery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bronchiopulmonary Dysplasia. BPD refers to a chronic lung disorder that primarily affects premature infants or those who have been on ventilator support. It is characterized by abnormal development of the lungs and breathing difficulties. This abbreviation is commonly seen on medical charts in neonatal and pediatric settings.

4. Which strategy is most likely to promote positive behavior in children?

• A. Providing flexible instructions with no consequences
• B. Limiting opportunities until the child performs adequately
• C. Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment
• D. Setting strict rules with punishments for misbehavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment is the most effective strategy to promote positive behavior in children. This approach focuses on enhancing the child's skills and abilities while fostering a supportive and encouraging atmosphere. By empowering the child and surrounding them with positivity, they are more likely to exhibit positive behaviors as they feel competent, valued, and motivated. This strategy emphasizes support and reinforcement over punitive measures, leading to long-lasting behavioral improvements.

5. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

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