ATI RN
Proctored Nutrition ATI
1. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?
- A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
- B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
- C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
- D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.
2. High blood pressure is defined as systolic and diastolic measurements greater than or equal to:
- A. 140 mm Hg and 90 mm Hg, respectively
- B. 150 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg, respectively
- C. 160 mm Hg and 110 mm Hg, respectively
- D. 180 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg, respectively
Correct answer: A
Rationale: High blood pressure, or hypertension, is typically defined as having a systolic pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher and/or a diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests a higher systolic measurement than the standard definition. Choice C is incorrect as it provides an even higher systolic measurement and a much higher diastolic measurement. Choice D is also incorrect as it suggests extremely elevated blood pressure values, well above the typical definition of hypertension.
3. The GAUGE size in ET tubes determines:
- A. The external circumference of the tube
- B. The internal diameter of the tube
- C. The length of the tube
- D. The tube’s volumetric capacity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
4. Which food is most likely to be included in a low-fiber diet?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Ripe Bananas
- C. Onions
- D. Whole-Grain Bread
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-fiber diet is generally recommended for individuals who need to restrict their intake of dietary fiber for health reasons. Ripe bananas are low in fiber and easy to digest, making them an ideal choice for a low-fiber diet. On the other hand, broccoli, onions, and whole-grain bread are high in fiber. Therefore, they are less suitable for a low-fiber diet as they could cause digestive discomfort or exacerbate certain health conditions. Ripe bananas, being low in fiber, are the most appropriate choice for a low-fiber diet.
5. Which individual would be at the greatest risk for deficiencies in water-soluble vitamins?
- A. An individual who regularly consumes fruits and vegetables.
- B. An individual with a high intake of dairy products.
- C. An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.
- D. An individual who frequently eats organ meats.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.' Processed foods are often deficient in water-soluble vitamins such as vitamin C and B vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies. On the other hand, fruits, vegetables, and organ meats are rich sources of these vitamins, so individuals who consume these regularly are less likely to develop deficiencies. While dairy products do contain some water-soluble vitamins, they are not depleted as quickly as they are in a diet high in processed foods, making a deficiency less likely.
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