Nursing Elites

1. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?

• A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
• B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
• C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
• D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.

2. Furosemide (Lasix) is a drug used to _____.

• A. activate vitamin D
• B. stimulate appetite
• C. lower cholesterol
• D. mobilize fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that helps mobilize fluids by increasing urine output, often used to treat conditions like edema and heart failure.

3. Where in the body are microvilli located, facilitating the absorption of most nutrients?

• A. Stomach
• B. Pancreas
• C. Large Intestine
• D. Small Intestine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Small Intestine. Microvilli are present in the small intestine, significantly increasing its surface area for efficient absorption of nutrients. The small intestine is the primary site for nutrient absorption in the body. The stomach (choice A) primarily functions to break down food with its acidic environment but is not where most nutrients are absorbed. The pancreas (choice B) produces enzymes to aid in digestion but does not directly absorb nutrients. The large intestine (choice C) mainly absorbs water and electrolytes from undigested food, rather than nutrients.

4. Which set of guidelines is intended to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intake of a population group, not individuals?

• A. RDA
• B. EAR
• C. DRA
• D. UL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is the correct choice because it is specifically designed to assess the nutrient adequacy of population groups, not individuals. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) (choice A) is the average daily level of intake sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97%-98%) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. The Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) (choice C) includes the EAR, RDA, Adequate Intake (AI), and UL, making it a broader set of nutrient reference values. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) (choice D) is the highest average daily nutrient intake level that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population.

5. What side effect is commonly associated with ECT?

• A. Transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Fractures
• D. Hypertension and increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, as Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is commonly associated with side effects such as transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation. While nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur, they are not as common as the memory-related side effects. Fractures (Choice C) are unlikely unless a mishap occurs during the procedure. Hypertension and increased heart rate (Choice D) might occur during the procedure due to the physiological stress of the treatment, but these are not the most commonly associated side effects. The rationale provided did not effectively explain this, so it's important to note that ECT is a procedure often used for severe depression and other mental illnesses, and understanding its side effects is crucial for patient safety and effective care.

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