Nursing Elites

1. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?

• A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
• B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
• C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
• D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.

2. A nurse is instructing teenage girls on the importance of adequate calcium intake throughout their life span to prevent complications. Which complication should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Goiter
• B. Osteoporosis
• C. Heart disease
• D. Dental caries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake throughout life helps prevent osteoporosis, a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, which is common in older adults. Goiter is caused by an iodine deficiency, not calcium. Heart disease is more related to factors like cholesterol and blood pressure. Dental caries are primarily influenced by oral hygiene and sugar intake, not just calcium.

3. What food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?

• A. peanut butter
• B. oatmeal
• C. fruit preserves
• D. plain yogurt

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, plain yogurt. Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet includes pureed or smooth foods that are easy to swallow. Plain yogurt fits this criteria as it is smooth and can be easily consumed without posing a risk of choking. Choices A, B, and C are not typically included in Level 1 of the diet. Peanut butter, oatmeal, and fruit preserves are not usually suitable for individuals on Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet as they may present a choking hazard or are not in a pureed or smooth form.

4. The PEM in which children ages 18-24 months display edema of the extremities, torso, and face, fatty liver, sparse yellow hair, and receive adequate kilocalories but not enough high-quality proteins is called?

• A. Marasmus
• B. Kwashiorkor
• C. Anemia
• D. Noma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by edema, fatty liver, and other symptoms, typically resulting from inadequate protein intake despite adequate calorie intake.

5. For a patient with GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease), which dietary advice is most appropriate?

• A. Increase spicy foods
• B. Avoid fatty foods
• C. Increase citrus fruits
• D. Reduce water intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding fatty foods can help reduce the symptoms of GERD.

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