to ensure client safety before starting blood transfusions the following are needed before the procedure can be done except
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019

1. To ensure client safety before starting blood transfusions, the following are needed before the procedure can be done EXCEPT:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure client safety before starting blood transfusions, taking baseline vital signs, warming the blood to room temperature, and having two nurses verify client identification, blood type, unit number, and expiration date of blood are crucial steps. Consent for blood transfusion is required but is typically obtained before the procedure. The focus before the procedure should be on confirming the right client, blood product, and ensuring the blood is prepared correctly to minimize risks of transfusion reactions.

2. Which condition is an example of a potential cause of gastritis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bile reflux is a potential cause of gastritis as it can irritate the stomach lining when bile backs up into the stomach. Choices B, C, and D do not directly cause gastritis. Low salt intake is not a common cause of gastritis. Hypophosphatasia is a rare genetic disorder affecting bone development, not the stomach. Gallstones, while related to the gallbladder, are not a direct cause of gastritis.

3. Patients with this chronic nutrient deficiency may feel tired, weak, and irritable while being unable to pinpoint why. Hypertension, heart attack, stroke, kidney stones, and osteoporosis are associated with the chronic deficiency of which nutrient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Chronic potassium deficiency can lead to hypertension, heart attack, stroke, kidney stones, and osteoporosis. Patients experiencing this deficiency may feel tired, weak, and irritable without knowing the cause. Choice A (Zinc) is incorrect as zinc deficiency presents with different symptoms. Choice B (Iron) deficiency is associated with anemia symptoms, not the conditions listed. Choice C (Sodium) deficiency typically manifests as muscle cramps, weakness, and confusion, not the conditions described in the question.

4. A nurse is caring for a client following a CVA and observes the client experiencing severe dysphagia. The nurse notifies the provider. Which of the following nutritional therapies will likely be prescribed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of severe dysphagia following a CVA, the client may have difficulty swallowing and require alternative nutritional support. Providing supplements via a nasogastric tube allows for the delivery of essential nutrients directly into the stomach, bypassing the swallowing difficulties. NPO (nothing by mouth) until dysphagia subsides may be too restrictive for the client's nutritional needs. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition is usually reserved for cases where enteral feeding is not possible or contraindicated. A soft residue diet may not be suitable for a client experiencing severe dysphagia.

5. Which consumption pattern of fermentable carbohydrate is considered most cariogenic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Multiple exposures of small quantities are considered most cariogenic. The total amount of dietary fermentable carbohydrate seems to matter less than the form and frequency in which it is consumed. Having multiple exposures of even small quantities of fermentable carbohydrate throughout the day promotes a highly cariogenic environment in the mouth. Choices A and B, involving single exposures, are less cariogenic as they do not sustain the fermentation process over time. Choice D suggests a beneficial practice by chewing sugarless gum after exposures, which can reduce the risk, making it less cariogenic compared to multiple exposures of small quantities.

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