Nursing Elites

1. What is an acute respiratory infection that inflames the alveoli in one or both lungs, causing them to fill with fluid or pus?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Bronchitis
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Asthma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pneumonia is the correct answer because it is an acute respiratory infection that inflames the alveoli in one or both lungs, leading to the accumulation of fluid or pus. This condition presents with symptoms like cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Bronchitis is the inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not the alveoli. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but does not always result in alveolar inflammation. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and narrowing, not alveolar inflammation.

2. Which condition is characterized by fluid collection in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe?

• A. Pulmonary edema
• B. Pleurisy
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary edema. Pulmonary edema is a condition where fluid accumulates in the air sacs of the lungs, causing breathing difficulty. Pleurisy (choice B) is inflammation of the pleura causing chest pain. Pleural effusion (choice C) is the buildup of excess fluid in the pleural space, the area between the layers of tissue that line the lungs and chest cavity. Pneumothorax (choice D) is the presence of air in the pleural space, which can cause a lung to collapse.

3. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

4. Which surgical procedure involves grafting a blood vessel to bypass a blocked artery in the heart?

• A. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
• B. Valve replacement
• C. Stent placement
• D. Angioplasty

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). This surgical procedure involves grafting a blood vessel to bypass a blocked coronary artery, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Choice B, Valve replacement, is a procedure to replace a damaged heart valve and is not directly related to bypassing blocked arteries. Choice C, Stent placement, involves inserting a mesh tube to keep blocked arteries open and is different from grafting a blood vessel. Choice D, Angioplasty, is a procedure to widen narrowed or blocked arteries, typically using a balloon catheter, and does not involve grafting a blood vessel.

5. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

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