Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

2. What diagnostic procedure uses sound waves to create images of the heart and assess its structure and function?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. MRI
• C. CT scan
• D. X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An echocardiogram is the correct answer because it is a diagnostic procedure that uses sound waves to create images of the heart, enabling doctors to assess its structure and function. This imaging technique is specifically designed for cardiac assessment. MRI (Choice B), CT scan (Choice C), and X-ray (Choice D) are imaging modalities that are not primarily used for detailed evaluation of the heart's structure and function, making them incorrect choices for this question.

3. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is complaining of muscle cramps. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Muscle cramps are a common symptom of hypokalemia, an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low potassium levels. Furosemide, a loop diuretic like Lasix, can lead to potassium loss in the body, contributing to hypokalemia. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as it refers to high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as it pertains to low sodium levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as it relates to low calcium levels, not typically associated with muscle cramps in the context of furosemide use.

4. The client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
• B. Instruct the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Advise the client to stop taking the medication.
• D. Discontinue the amiodarone immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a potential side effect of amiodarone. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is the most appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because although blurred vision can be a common side effect of amiodarone, it should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to stop taking the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can be dangerous and is not the first course of action. Choice D is too drastic as discontinuing the medication should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider after proper evaluation.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation on dabigatran (Pradaxa). What is the most important instruction to give to the client?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Do not miss a dose and take it at the same time each day.
• C. Avoid consuming alcohol while on this medication.
• D. Monitor for signs of bleeding.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to give to a client on dabigatran (Pradaxa) is not to miss a dose and take it at the same time each day. This is crucial for maintaining the anticoagulant effect of the medication. Choice A is not necessary as dabigatran does not need to be taken with food. Choice C is important but not as crucial as ensuring proper dosing. Choice D is also important but falls behind in priority compared to maintaining consistent dosing.

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