Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

2. Which procedure is used to remove excess fluid or air from the pleural space, helping to relieve pressure on the lungs?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a procedure specifically designed to remove excess fluid or air from the pleural space in the chest. This process helps to relieve pressure on the lungs and improve breathing. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not to remove fluid from the pleural space. Chest X-ray (Choice C) is an imaging test that provides a picture of the structures inside the chest, including the lungs, heart, and bones. Arterial blood gas (ABG) test (Choice D) is a blood test that measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, providing information about how well the lungs are working, but it does not involve removing excess fluid or air from the pleural space.

3. Which term describes a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria?

• A. Atrial fibrillation
• B. Ventricular fibrillation
• C. Atrial flutter
• D. Sinus tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is indeed a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria. This condition can increase the risk of stroke and heart failure. Choice B, Ventricular fibrillation, is incorrect because it refers to a life-threatening arrhythmia that occurs in the ventricles, not the atria. Choice C, Atrial flutter, is incorrect as it describes a different type of atrial arrhythmia characterized by a regular but fast heartbeat. Choice D, Sinus tachycardia, is incorrect because it is a normal increase in heart rate originating from the sinus node, not an abnormal rhythm.

4. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

5. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.

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