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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf
1. What is a condition where the walls of the arteries become thickened and stiff, often due to the buildup of plaque, leading to reduced blood flow?
- A. Atherosclerosis
- B. Angina
- C. Hypertension
- D. Arrhythmia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Atherosclerosis is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the thickening and stiffening of artery walls due to plaque buildup, which restricts blood flow. Angina (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Hypertension (choice C) is high blood pressure, not directly related to arterial wall thickening. Arrhythmia (choice D) refers to irregular heart rhythms and is not specifically linked to artery wall changes like atherosclerosis.
2. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone). What is the most important dietary instruction?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid foods high in sodium.
- D. Increase intake of foods high in sodium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if too much potassium is consumed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing intake of potassium-rich foods can worsen hyperkalemia, while avoiding foods high in sodium is not the primary concern when taking spironolactone.
3. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.
4. What condition involves a weakened and bulging aorta, the main artery in the body, potentially leading to rupture?
- A. Aortic aneurysm
- B. Arterial stenosis
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Deep vein thrombosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aortic aneurysm is a condition characterized by the weakening and bulging of the aorta, the body's main artery. If left untreated, this bulging may lead to a rupture, causing severe complications. Arterial stenosis refers to the narrowing of an artery, not the weakening and bulging seen in an aortic aneurysm. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery, which is different from the weakening and bulging in an aortic aneurysm. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, not related to the condition described in the question.
5. The client is on warfarin and has an INR of 1.5. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Continue the current dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the client may be at risk of clot formation. The nurse's priority action should be to hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent further reduction of the INR. Increasing the dose could potentially lead to an increased risk of bleeding, and continuing the current dose may not be sufficient to bring the INR within the therapeutic range. Monitoring the client's INR closely is important but not the priority action in this scenario.
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