Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

2. Which term refers to the contraction phase of the heart when blood is ejected from the chambers?

• A. Systole
• B. Diastole
• C. Contractility
• D. Afterload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, systole. Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers. During diastole (choice B), the heart relaxes and fills with blood, contrasting with systole. Contractility (choice C) refers to the ability of the heart to contract effectively. Afterload (choice D) is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole.

3. The healthcare provider is administering IV nitroglycerin to a patient for chest pain. What is the most critical parameter to monitor?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure.' Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can cause a rapid drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Monitoring the blood pressure is crucial to prevent potential complications such as hypotension-induced dizziness, syncope, or organ hypoperfusion. While heart rate, oxygen saturation, and respiratory rate are important parameters to monitor in a clinical setting, the immediate concern with IV nitroglycerin administration is the risk of hypotension, making blood pressure the most critical parameter to assess.

4. The client is on spironolactone (Aldactone) and has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer potassium supplements.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to hold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further guidance. Choice B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect because continuing spironolactone could lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the dose of spironolactone would exacerbate the hyperkalemia.

5. Which condition is characterized by fluid collection in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe?

• A. Pulmonary edema
• B. Pleurisy
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary edema. Pulmonary edema is a condition where fluid accumulates in the air sacs of the lungs, causing breathing difficulty. Pleurisy (choice B) is inflammation of the pleura causing chest pain. Pleural effusion (choice C) is the buildup of excess fluid in the pleural space, the area between the layers of tissue that line the lungs and chest cavity. Pneumothorax (choice D) is the presence of air in the pleural space, which can cause a lung to collapse.

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