ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.
2. What procedure uses a catheter to open blocked coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart muscle?
- A. Angioplasty
- B. Stent placement
- C. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
- D. Valve replacement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Angioplasty. Angioplasty is a procedure where a catheter is used to open blocked coronary arteries and may involve the insertion of a stent to improve blood flow to the heart muscle. Stent placement (B) is a related procedure but specifically refers to the insertion of a stent. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) (C) is a surgical procedure that uses blood vessels to bypass blocked coronary arteries. Valve replacement (D) is a different procedure that involves replacing a heart valve, not opening blocked coronary arteries.
3. What is the amount of tension the ventricle must develop during contraction to eject blood from the left ventricle into the aorta?
- A. Afterload
- B. Preload
- C. Automaticity
- D. Ejection fraction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Afterload is the correct answer because it refers to the pressure or tension that the ventricle must overcome during systole to eject blood into the aorta. Preload, on the other hand, is the degree of stretch of the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole before it contracts. Automaticity is the ability of the heart to generate electrical impulses independently, and ejection fraction is the percentage of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each heartbeat. Therefore, in the context of the question, afterload best describes the amount of tension the ventricle must develop to eject blood into the aorta.
4. What type of therapy delivers high concentrations of oxygen to the lungs?
- A. Oxygen therapy
- B. Ventilator therapy
- C. Mechanical ventilation
- D. CPAP therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Oxygen therapy is the correct answer because it specifically refers to a treatment that delivers high concentrations of oxygen to the lungs. This therapy is used for patients who require additional oxygen due to conditions affecting their breathing. Ventilator therapy (B), mechanical ventilation (C), and CPAP therapy (D) involve different mechanisms and purposes than delivering high concentrations of oxygen to the lungs.
5. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?
- A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
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