ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. Which condition is characterized by the lungs becoming scarred and stiff, leading to difficulty breathing and inadequate oxygen intake into the bloodstream?
- A. Pulmonary fibrosis
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. COPD
- D. Tuberculosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary fibrosis is a lung disease where lung tissue is damaged and scarred, resulting in breathing difficulties and decreased oxygen transfer into the bloodstream. Cystic fibrosis (B) is a genetic disorder primarily affecting the lungs and digestive system, not causing lung scarring. COPD (C) includes conditions like chronic bronchitis and emphysema but doesn't specifically involve lung scarring. Tuberculosis (D) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but doesn't cause lung tissue scarring and stiffness as seen in pulmonary fibrosis.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.
3. This medication type is used to relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing blood pressure.
- A. Vasodilator
- B. Anticoagulant
- C. Diuretic
- D. Beta-blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasodilator. Vasodilators are medications that work by relaxing and widening blood vessels, which improves blood flow and reduces blood pressure. They are commonly used in the treatment of heart conditions. Anticoagulants (choice B) are medications that prevent blood clot formation, diuretics (choice C) increase urine production to reduce fluid retention, and beta-blockers (choice D) reduce heart rate and workload on the heart. These mechanisms differ from the action of vasodilators.
4. What is a condition where the heart's ability to pump blood is reduced because the heart muscle is enlarged, thickened, or stiffened?
- A. Cardiomyopathy
- B. Endocarditis
- C. Myocarditis
- D. Aortic stenosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the enlargement, thickening, or stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability of the heart to pump blood effectively. Endocarditis (Choice B) is the inflammation of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, not specifically related to the heart muscle. Myocarditis (Choice C) is inflammation of the heart muscle typically caused by a viral infection, not directly related to the heart muscle's structure. Aortic stenosis (Choice D) is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve opening, affecting blood flow from the heart's left ventricle to the aorta, different from the structural changes seen in cardiomyopathy.
5. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. Platelet count
- B. PT/INR
- C. aPTT
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.
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