Nursing Elites

1. What term describes a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat and requires multiple pillows to sleep comfortably?

• A. Orthopnea
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Orthopnea. Orthopnea is a condition where a person finds it hard to breathe while lying flat and needs to use multiple pillows to sleep comfortably. This position helps relieve the discomfort by allowing better lung expansion. Choice B, Dyspnea, refers to difficulty breathing in general, not specifically related to lying flat. Choice C, Tachypnea, is rapid breathing and is not directly related to difficulty breathing while lying down. Choice D, Bradypnea, is slow breathing and does not describe the condition of having trouble breathing when lying flat.

2. The client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• B. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
• C. Instruct the client to monitor their symptoms at home.
• D. Suggest the client reduce physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath, it can be indicative of pulmonary toxicity, a severe side effect associated with this medication. The nurse's priority is to notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Choice B is incorrect because shortness of breath with amiodarone should not be dismissed as a common side effect. Instructing the client to monitor symptoms at home (Choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Suggesting the client reduce physical activity (Choice D) does not address the potential serious nature of the symptom and the need for prompt evaluation.

3. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are blocked or delayed, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?

• A. Heart block
• B. Atrial fibrillation
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer. It is a condition where the electrical impulses in the heart are blocked or delayed, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, or other issues. Atrial fibrillation (B) is characterized by rapid, irregular heartbeats. Tachycardia (C) is a condition where the heart rate is too fast. Bradycardia (D) is the opposite of tachycardia, where the heart rate is too slow.

4. What is a condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently too high, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Diabetes
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is consistently too high. This increased pressure can lead to serious health issues such as heart disease and stroke. Hypotension (choice B) refers to low blood pressure, which is not the correct term in this context. Diabetes (choice C) and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are also serious conditions but are not specifically characterized by consistently high blood pressure.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

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