Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath, often occurring at night and associated with heart failure?

• A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
• B. Sleep apnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath during sleep, often associated with heart failure. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but is not specifically associated with heart failure. Choice C, Orthopnea, is difficulty breathing that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting up, not necessarily associated with heart failure. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficulty breathing and does not specifically describe the sudden onset at night associated with heart failure as seen in paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

3. What procedure involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove excess fluid and help the patient breathe more easily?

• A. Thoracentesis
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Spirometry
• D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thoracentesis is the correct answer. It is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the pleural space to remove excess fluid, aiding in easier breathing. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) is a procedure to visualize the airways and diagnose lung problems, not specifically for fluid drainage. Spirometry (Choice C) is a test to measure lung function, not a procedure for fluid removal. Arterial blood gas (ABG) (Choice D) is a blood test to assess oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood, not a procedure for draining fluid from the pleural space.

4. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

5. From where do these originate, behind the cusps of the aortic valve, in an area known as Valsalva’s sinus?

• A. Pulmonary valve
• B. Aortic valve
• C. Tricuspid valve
• D. Mitral valve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Aortic valve. The aortic valve is a semilunar valve located between the left ventricle and the aorta. It prevents the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle. The pulmonary valve (choice A) is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery, not in the Valsalva’s sinus area. The tricuspid valve (choice C) is situated between the right atrium and right ventricle, and the mitral valve (choice D) is located between the left atrium and left ventricle, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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