ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf
1. What is a chronic condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is persistently elevated, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hyperlipidemia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a chronic condition characterized by persistently elevated pressure in the arteries. This condition increases the risk of heart disease, stroke, and other health issues. Hypotension (choice B) refers to low blood pressure and is not the correct answer. Hyperlipidemia (choice C) is high levels of fats in the blood, not related to blood pressure. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is high blood sugar levels, not directly related to elevated blood pressure.
2. What type of imaging test uses X-rays to visualize the blood vessels after injecting them with a contrast dye?
- A. Angiography
- B. CT scan
- C. MRI
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Angiography is the correct answer because it is an imaging test that specifically uses X-rays to visualize blood vessels by injecting them with a contrast dye. This procedure is crucial for diagnosing conditions such as blockages or aneurysms. The other options, CT scan, MRI, and ultrasound, do not involve the use of contrast dye to visualize blood vessels with X-rays.
3. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 58 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
- B. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Increase the dose of the beta blocker.
- D. Monitor the client’s heart rate and reassess in 30 minutes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 58 bpm is considered low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse's priority action should be to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment. Choice A is incorrect because administering the beta blocker without considering the low heart rate can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the dose of the beta blocker can lead to further slowing of the heart rate, which is not safe in this situation. Choice D is not the priority action; holding the medication and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider is more crucial.
4. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.
5. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 5.2. What is the most appropriate action?
- A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 5.2 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Holding the next dose of warfarin is not enough to address the high INR, and increasing the dose would further elevate the INR level. Monitoring the INR closely is important, but in this case, immediate action is needed to counteract the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
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