the nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to a client what is the primary effect of this medication on the heart
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

2. This test measures the amount of blood the heart pumps with each beat, often used to assess heart function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ejection fraction. Ejection fraction is a measure of the percentage of blood that is pumped out of the left ventricle with each beat, used to assess heart function. Choice B, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is not specific to each beat. Choice C, Stroke volume, is the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction but does not specify the percentage of blood pumped out. Choice D, End-diastolic volume, is the volume of blood in the ventricle just before it contracts and does not directly measure the blood pumped with each beat.

3. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

4. What is a chronic condition where the airways in the lungs become damaged and widened, leading to mucus buildup and frequent infections?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bronchiectasis is a chronic condition characterized by the damage and widening of the airways in the lungs, resulting in mucus accumulation and recurrent lung infections. Choice B, chronic bronchitis, involves inflammation of the bronchial tubes and excessive mucus production but does not specifically mention airway damage and widening. Choice C, pneumoconiosis, refers to lung diseases caused by inhalation of mineral dust particles, not airway damage and mucus buildup. Choice D, asthma, is a chronic condition characterized by airway inflammation and narrowing, leading to breathing difficulties, but it does not involve the widening and damage of the airways as seen in bronchiectasis.

5. The nurse is monitoring a client on dobutamine. What adverse effect should the nurse watch for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Dobutamine is a medication that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to increased heart rate. Therefore, tachycardia is a common adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dobutamine typically does not cause bradycardia, hypertension, or respiratory distress as its primary adverse effects.

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