Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

• A. Decreases heart rate
• B. Increases heart rate
• C. Increases blood pressure
• D. Decreases blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer vitamin K.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

3. Which condition is characterized by the narrowing or blockage of arteries that supply blood to the heart by plaque?

• A. Coronary artery disease (CAD)
• B. Atherosclerosis
• C. Peripheral artery disease
• D. Congestive heart failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Coronary artery disease (CAD). CAD specifically refers to the condition where the arteries supplying blood to the heart become narrowed or blocked by plaque buildup. Choice B, Atherosclerosis, is a general term for the hardening and narrowing of arteries due to plaque buildup but does not specifically mention the heart. Choice C, Peripheral artery disease, involves narrowing of arteries that supply blood to areas other than the heart. Choice D, Congestive heart failure, is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively but is not primarily caused by narrowed or blocked arteries.

4. What diagnostic procedure uses sound waves to create images of the heart and assess its structure and function?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. MRI
• C. CT scan
• D. X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An echocardiogram is the correct answer because it is a diagnostic procedure that uses sound waves to create images of the heart, enabling doctors to assess its structure and function. This imaging technique is specifically designed for cardiac assessment. MRI (Choice B), CT scan (Choice C), and X-ray (Choice D) are imaging modalities that are not primarily used for detailed evaluation of the heart's structure and function, making them incorrect choices for this question.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

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